It is sophistry that we Protestants "accept the canon of the Jews"

SummaScriptura

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Hi summaseriptura,
I'm not sure that your historical accounting is quite correct. The canon of the old covenant had been established well before anyone even knew that there was ever going to be any apostles or writings thereof.
I'm sure that your historical accounting is not quite correct.

L@@k here

The "Writings" were still open when the Apostles wrote. The unbelieving portion of the religious leaders of the Jews moved to close it so that they could keep their followers away from the Apostolic writings.
I believe that most Jewish historians allow that the old covenant was canonized sometime during the intertestimental or deuterocanonical period of about 400 years between the last writings of the prophets of God and the birth of the promised Messiah.
Again, L@@k here.
If this understanding is true, then the Jews didn't even know that there was ever going to be apostles or any writings attributed to them.<snip>God bless you,
In Christ, ted
 
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miamited

Ted
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Hi summascriptura,

From your link I find that there really are claims of canonization from the intertestemental period through the 2nd or 3rd century A.D. This site seemed to be the most in depth regarding the issue of canonization and is claimed to be fairly widely respected as to the authorship and study of the subject: The Canonization of the Old Testament

The Jewish encyclopedia makes the point that the word 'canon' doesn't seem to have come into popular use until sometime in the 2nd and 3rd century A.D., which may explain why some researchers hold to this dating of the canon. The issue to which the word relates, 'gathering a collection of writings to hold as separate from others' is seen among the Jewish people and their gathering and understanding of the holy Scriptures many centuries earlier. Here's how the site quoted above defines 'canon' and explains that the word comes from a Greek word and so would not have been used among the Jews of the old covenant days.

Canonization—as it is called from the Greek kanon, meaning “rule or measuring rod”—is a process by which a collection of writings come to be considered authoritative, definitive and fixed by a particular religious authority. A canonical book, therefore, is one that conforms to the “canon”—that is, passes the test of authenticity. (A Faithful Version)

As also explained in the article, Israel actually began establishing a 'measuring rod or rule' of inspired writings as far back as the Babylonian exile. It lists different times during the old covenant passage of history in which the 'measuring rod or rule, of the old covenant would be newly established to adopt newer writings. This site makes the claim that Ezra actually compiled the final canon.

It is evident that the canonicity of the Scriptures was accomplished in several preliminary stages over many centuries, culminating in the work of Ezra the scribe and priest. Canonization efforts prior to Ezra’s time were, at best, preparatory to his final canon. (A Faithful Version)

This would make the final list of old covenant writings established 300-400 B.C.

So, this issue, as many, is going to rest on who one believes presents the truth. It is my understanding, based mainly on how I understand the purpose and plan of God in delivering to mankind His Scriptures, that the old covenant writings were established before Jesus' visitation to us. The
evidence, as presented in this site, also explains that there is good reason to believe that the Jews had understood the necessity of establishing what Holy Scriptures were to be understood as the truth of God clear back during the Babylonian exile. I see no reason why they wouldn't have then pretty regularly established, for their own purposes, what were the Holy Scriptures and keeping them separate and apart from all other such purported writings.

Despite the many, many failings of Israel in being obedient to their God, they did seem to handle the Scriptures with a fair degree of holiness and reverence. This is also what Paul claimed of them to the early christians. When he rhetorically asked what value there was in being a Jew, he immediately answered his own question by claiming that the very chief reason was that they were entrusted with the oracles of God. He didn't say that they were properly worshiping God or that they were God's chosen people. No! Not at all. He said that the chief reason for one being a Jew is that they were entrusted with the very words of God. To me, this says quite a lot about why we should trust the old covenant Scriptures and that the writings that we should accept as being the inspired Scriptures are those included in the canon that had already been established before Paul made this claim.

So, bottom line, you and I will just have to respectfully disagree on the purpose of and timing of the old covenant canon.


God bless you,
In Christ, ted
 
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miamited

Ted
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Hi again summascriptura,

Based on Paul's claim of the chief purpose and reason of their being a Jewish people, I also find it difficult to believe that God agrees with your claim that it is 'sophistry' for born again believers in the Lord Jesus to 'accept the canon of the Jews'.

God bless you,
In Christ, ted
 
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SummaScriptura

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Hi again summascriptura,

Based on Paul's claim of the chief purpose and reason of their being a Jewish people, I also find it difficult to believe that God agrees with your claim that it is 'sophistry' for born again believers in the Lord Jesus to 'accept the canon of the Jews'.

God bless you,
In Christ, ted
Canons exist for one reason only, to limit the number of books accepted as authority to the community. Since the purpose of the canon of the Jews was to exclude the writings of the new Christian movement, in what sense do you accept the canon of the Jews? That's why this claim of us Protestants is sophistry. We're just not being honest.
 
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Ken Rank

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Okay, well if you cannot produce the primary sources for this, I will tell you frankly, your understanding of the way things happened is not correct. Nothing even similar to what you have described in fact occurred.
I have had the flu for 4 days champ... I have not had time to come to this forum and certain no strength to find a source to make you happy. One of them, by the way, is in Eusebius but I won't bother taking any time to give you the additional witnesses since you have taken an attitude and seem to think the world revolves on your time table.
 
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Ken Rank

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I see your point. You deduce since God is sovereign, we have the exact number of books in the Bible as he ordained. Correct?
If God knew before He made Adam that Adam would fall (and He did, as I showed) then everything God does is done leading to the reconciliation and restoration of all of Creation back to Him. Even creating Adam falls in line with that reasoning because, again, He knew before He made him that Adam would fall. So... if God knew all of this from the beginning, we really think He couldn't make sure we had in what we call the Bible exactly what we needed to walk in His purpose?
 
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miamited

Ted
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Canons exist for one reason only, to limit the number of books accepted as authority to the community. Since the purpose of the canon of the Jews was to exclude the writings of the new Christian movement, in what sense do you accept the canon of the Jews? That's why this claim of us Protestants is sophistry. We're just not being honest.

Hi SS,

While I agree, somewhat, with your understanding of the purpose of establishing a canon, my complaint is in your reasoning as to 'why' there was a canon established for the old covenant writings and, apparently based on why you believe that, when the canon of the old covenant writings was established.

As explained earlier, we apparently don't agree on 'why' God gave unto mankind the Scriptures. The old covenant and the new covenant work hand in hand in revealing to us the whole of God's work. Let's assume for a moment, that your idea is correct. The Jews established the canon of the old covenant sometime in the early centuries after the Messiach arrived. Why would that mean that we shouldn't trust them? Up until the point that they tell us about, is it your position that they may not be true because once Jesus came they wanted to lock out anything about him?

Is it your position that because the Jews made an attempt to close the canon after Jesus came so as to keep him out of their writings, that all the things that had been written prior to his coming then became untrue or untrustworthy? What we have are two canons. One of the old covenant writings of inspired Scripture telling us all that God has done in this realm of His creating from the creation of all things in this realm until three or four hundred years before Jesus came. Another that continues from the point of Jesus coming and carrying through to the end of days and the final judgment of that same God who created all things in the beginning.

They can both be good and correct and trusted by those who love God.

It would seem, based on your having an icon of the book of Enoch as a part of your posts, that your disagreement may rest on you thinking that there are some other writings that you think should have been included in the canon. That's fine and a canon doesn't really mean that such writings are the only writings that apply to a subject, but that they are the generally recognized writings that do apply to the subject.

I've read a smattering of the book of Enoch and there are some clarifications and some support for things we read in some of the canon of the old covenant. Enoch does give us a somewhat clearer picture of some of the events written of in the old covenant writings, but it doesn't tell us anything particularly new that isn't in the present canon.

I think that one of the reasons that Enoch was never considered to be a part of the old covenant canon is the lack of verification of authorship. Jude does make a reference to the writings of Enoch, but Jude was a new covenant writer who had apparently read the book of Enoch. However, for whatever reason, the Jews decided not to include the writings attributed to Enoch in their canon. But that certainly doesn't mean that christians today can't read and appreciate the book of Enoch as containing the truth of God. Apparently Jude had read the book of Enoch and despite it not being a part of the canon when he read it, he wrote of a truth contained in the writings of Enoch.

So, I would encourage you to read the writings and take to heart what the words say to you. However, this idea that you have of the canon of the old covenant being established after Jesus' coming to keep out what the Jews believed to be spurious writings concerning Jesus, wouldn't even matter as regards the writings of Enoch. Enoch is supposed to have been written by a man the seventh generation from Adam before there ever was a Jewish people. So, he wasn't separated out because he wrote of Jesus any more than Daniel or Isaiah would have been separated out for what they wrote about the coming Messiah.

Here's a quote from a source that discusses the book of Enoch: There was one passage which particularly impressed him, a passage in which this term "Son of Man" appeared. The writer of this so-called Book of Enoch went on to tell about this Son of Man, describing the work he would do on earth and explaining that this Son of Man, before coming down on this earth to bring salvation to mankind, had walked through the courts of heavenly glory with his Father, the Father of all; and that he had turned his back upon all this grandeur and glory to come down on earth to proclaim salvation to needy mortals.
www.world-destiny.org/jesusboe.htm

This same term of 'Son of Man' is also found in the old covenant canon, so it doesn't seem that the Jews would have disallowed it as a part of the canon based on that. Isaiah wrote of some of the work that he would do that even Jesus quoted when he first arrived, as a man, in the synagogue.

So, I have no problem with anyone reading and accepting the writings of Enoch as truth, but I don't find that such a reason would mean that the established old covenant canon is wrong in any way, or shouldn't be trusted by those whose promise is held in the new covenant.

God bless you,
In Christ, ted
 
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Standing Up

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You are both missing the point. Protestants, (we came much later, no?) claim as a pillar of their defense of Biblical canon that "we accept the canon of the Jews" as if the religious leaders of the Jews a generation after Christ, and after the destruction of the temple has any relevancy to the question at all. It is a defense designed to obfuscate. It is a falsehood in that sense.
The idea behind a canon is one of authority in the sense that it is "God speaking through either a prophet (or valid prophetic line) in the OT and an apostle (or associate thereof) in the NT. Each period has ended and each period is outlined by, amongst others, Christ.

There are useful books apart from a canon and some will include their defined Tradition (RC, EO, LDS, JW), but the difference is historically valid/identified authority.

Here's a question for you. Dan. 9:24 outlines 70 weeks of years with three breakdowns of 7 weeks (49 years), 62 weeks (434 years), 1 week (7 years). Why the 49 year delineation?
 
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Ted
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You are both missing the point. Protestants, (we came much later, no?) claim as a pillar of their defense of Biblical canon that "we accept the canon of the Jews" as if the religious leaders of the Jews a generation after Christ, and after the destruction of the temple has any relevancy to the question at all. It is a defense designed to obfuscate. It is a falsehood in that sense.

Hi SS,

That's right. Most born again believers 'accept the canon of the Jews'. This is based on our faith that God did, despite their regular disobedience, was able to deliver His truth to us through His people. The exact thing that Paul allows is the chief reason for why there was a Jewish race. Here's the picture. God called Abraham and promised him that through his genealogy that He would bless all the peoples of the earth. I believe that, despite Israel's regular disobedience, God's purpose in establishing this race of people from the loins of Abraham was that they were to be entrusted with the very oracles of God. They were. They took that responsibility of their purpose as very, very serious and handled the Scriptures with the utmost reverence. They did then, deliver to us all that God wanted them to deliver to us. By faith, and the fact that Jesus didn't make any single assertion that there was any problem with what was believed to be the Scriptures in the day of his visitation to us, I believe that the old covenant Scriptures as they were held to be in the days of Jesus is the correct and reliable canon.

Does the canon include absolutely every writing that God may have inspired among mankind? Maybe, maybe not. But what has been placed in the canon is apparently sufficient for us to know all that God wants us to know. As I said, if you want to include some other writing that you feel should hold as much authority as the existing canon of Scripture, I support that. So long as that additional writing does agree with all the rest. If that's the case, then it merely becomes a supporting document of what is included in the canon.

Now, as I have also previously explained, you and I hold to a different understanding of the 'when' and 'why' there was an old covenant canon. I do understand, so please don't accuse me of not understanding your position. I don't agree with your understanding.

God bless you,
In Christ, ted
 
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JohnRabbit

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If God knew before He made Adam that Adam would fall (and He did, as I showed) then everything God does is done leading to the reconciliation and restoration of all of Creation back to Him. Even creating Adam falls in line with that reasoning because, again, He knew before He made him that Adam would fall. So... if God knew all of this from the beginning, we really think He couldn't make sure we had in what we call the Bible exactly what we needed to walk in His purpose?
i'm with you on that! :oldthumbsup:
 
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SummaScriptura

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<snip>Let's assume for a moment, that your idea is correct. The Jews established the canon of the old covenant sometime in the early centuries after the Messiach arrived. Why would that mean that we shouldn't trust them?<snip>
Because if we trust them we too would exclude the Apostolic writings. I assert it is dishonest to state 'we trust the Jews when it comes to canon' and then to say, 'except we will admit the books of the Apostles which their canon excluded'.
 
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SummaScriptura

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<snip>Here's a question for you. Dan. 9:24 outlines 70 weeks of years with three breakdowns of 7 weeks (49 years), 62 weeks (434 years), 1 week (7 years). Why the 49 year delineation?
It defines the 49 years it would take to rebuild Jerusalem after the Babylonian captivity. Your reason?
 
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Standing Up

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Because if we trust them we too would exclude the Apostolic writings. I assert it is dishonest to state 'we trust the Jews when it comes to canon' and then to say, 'except we will admit the books of the Apostles which their canon excluded'.
Aren't all the authors of NT Jewish? The delineation is one of prophets and apostles (Luke 11:49, Ephesians 2:20, 2 Peter 3:2).
 
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Because if we trust them we too would exclude the Apostolic writings. I assert it is dishonest to state 'we trust the Jews when it comes to canon' and then to say, 'except we will admit the books of the Apostles which their canon excluded'.

Hi SS,

No, I've owned a lot of 'protestant' bibles and not a single one of them have been missing the new covenant writings. So, if your claim is that by trusting the old covenant canon established by the Jews means that we don't get the new covenant writings, I'd say you've likely been sleeping all of your life and wonder if you've ever opened the bible to read it. The rest of us understand that there are two established canons; one for the old covenant, which protestant believers trust for that group of writings, and one for the new covenant writings, which most protestant believers also trust for that group of writings. Although, there are one or two denominational groups that struggle with accepting either of them wholly. It's actually most Jewish synagogues and followers who are the ones who miss the new covenant writings in their Tanakh.

Again, your problem, as I see it, is that you refuse to understand that the canon of the old covenant writings had been established long before any of the new covenant writings came to be. Despite pretty much every bible having a face page and title page stuck smack dab between the old covenant writings and the new covenant writings to delineate them as separate from one another, you don't seem to be able to understand why that is.

Anyway, good luck with your fight. BTW if you did get a bible without the new covenant writings included, I'd encourage you to just throw it away and go out and buy a new one. If you also want to continue to drive your claim that our accepting the the canon of the Scriptures as it is, is somehow deceitful by including the canon of the old covenant as it was delivered to us by the Jews, then perhaps you could start up a new fad in bible offerings. Sell them as a book set. One book with what some other group of protestant believers decide should be the old covenant inspired writings and another with what the same group would consider to be the new covenant inspired writings.

God bless you,
In Christ, ted
 
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Standing Up

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What is your point SU?
It appears you've set up a false definition for yourself about the writers of the OT and NT. Both groups were Jewish. The actual identification for the canon was established as prophetic voice (OT) and apostolic voice (NT), rather than nationality.

PS. As regards the 49 years of Daniel, not it wasn't the period of building the temple. That went on for the whole period (7 weeks and 62 weeks). Yet Daniel defines the three periods (7, 62, 1). Why? The command began w/ Artaxerxes (Ezra 7 and 9) at 458/457 BCE. 49 years later is 408 BCE. That is when Malachi and Nehemiah completed their tasks. That marks the beginning of the so-called silent period to the last prophet John the Baptist and start of NT. But unless one considers the authoritative definition (valid prophetic line and apostolic line), one won't consider this either.

All the best.
 
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SummaScriptura

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It appears you've set up a false definition for yourself about the writers of the OT and NT. Both groups were Jewish. The actual identification for the canon was established as prophetic voice (OT) and apostolic voice (NT), rather than nationality.

PS. As regards the 49 years of Daniel, not it wasn't the period of building the temple. That went on for the whole period (7 weeks and 62 weeks). Yet Daniel defines the three periods (7, 62, 1). Why? The command began w/ Artaxerxes (Ezra 7 and 9) at 458/457 BCE. 49 years later is 408 BCE. That is when Malachi and Nehemiah completed their tasks. That marks the beginning of the so-called silent period to the last prophet John the Baptist and start of NT. But unless one considers the authoritative definition (valid prophetic line and apostolic line), one won't consider this either.

All the best.
The religious leaders of the Jews canonized the Hebrew Scriptures. I did not say, "the Jews canonized" them. Judaism re-formed itself after the Church took off. That re-forming included a hedge against faith in Jesus.

I never said it took 49 years to build the temple.

BTW, "Prophets and Aposltes" (Paul's formula) defines the living representatives of the Church for Paul, not the people of olden times and the people of church times. Ephesians 3 and 4 are especially clear in this regard. You seem to be looking for evidence to support your claim rather than letting the Bible interpret itself.
 
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Standing Up

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The religious leaders of the Jews canonized the Hebrew Scriptures. I did not say, "the Jews canonized" them. Judaism re-formed itself after the Church took off. That re-forming included a hedge against faith in Jesus.

I never said it took 49 years to build the temple.

BTW, "Prophets and Aposltes" (Paul's formula) defines the living representatives of the Church for Paul, not the people of olden times and the people of church times. Ephesians 3 and 4 are especially clear in this regard. You seem to be looking for evidence to support your claim rather than letting the Bible interpret itself.

Reread Luke 11:49, Ephesians 2:20, 2 Peter 3:2 for the delineation.

The valid prophetic line prophesied until John (Matthew 11:13, Luke 16:16). That's Christ who defined the terms. Not the Jewish leaders who defined the canon.
 
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SummaScriptura

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<snip>Again, your problem, as I see it, is that you refuse to understand that the canon of the old covenant writings had been established long before any of the new covenant writings came to be. Despite pretty much every bible having a face page and title page stuck smack dab between the old covenant writings and the new covenant writings to delineate them as separate from one another, you don't seem to be able to understand why that is.<snip>
Yes. I refuse. So do the Jews apparently. But I thot you agreed with them? Apparently not.

L@@K here
 
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