Is this Blasphemy?

[GUANO]

It's not blasphemy. It could be said that it's using His name in vain (in a meaningless and pointless context).

 

[Solomons Porch]

If I stumped my toe and of course it hurt REALLY bad I then yelled out: Oh Fred !!!!! and my husbands name might be Fred, wouldnt he then think I was blaming him or calling him??

Im personally convicted of saying "Holy Cow" but thats just me

 

[Lulav]

That's true. His name isn't God either. That's a descriptive noun. God's name is YHWH.

Correct

The Lord's name is Iesous/n.

Actually the Messiahs' name is Yeshua, which means salvation.

As the angel said

an angel of the Lord appeared to him in a dream and said, “Joseph, son of David, do not be afraid to take Mariam as your wife, for the One conceived in her is from the Holy Spirit. 21 She will give birth to a son, and you shall give Him the name Yeshua, because He will save His people from their sins.”

If you want to use the English of that name it would be Joshua.

 

[Vicomte13]

Correct

Actually the Messiahs' name is Yeshua, which means salvation.

As the angel said

an angel of the Lord appeared to him in a dream and said, “Joseph, son of David, do not be afraid to take Mariam as your wife, for the One conceived in her is from the Holy Spirit. 21 She will give birth to a son, and you shall give Him the name Yeshua, because He will save His people from their sins.”

If you want to use the English of that name it would be Joshua.

Problem: the only text we have of what the angel said is in Greek. We can manufacture a Hebrew or Aramaic text, but it will be that - a manufacture. The name we've got, from Scripture, is Iesoun. We can translate Scripture into Hebrew or Aramaic, if we want, but there is no very ancient manuscript that says Yeshua. They're all in Greek and they all says Iesous/Iesoun. We can look at the Peshitta, which comes a little later, and read that Iesous was translated into Aramaic.

We can assume that Jesus spoke Aramaic, but we don't have a Scripture that gives us his name in Aramaic, only Greek. The oldest Scriptures are in Greek.

So, we can use a translated name - Jesus, Yeshua, etc. - and consider the translation to be the name. It all depends on how important we think the literal text is.

It's a wonderful junction of tension between "Scripture Alone" belief, and the desire for "historical accuracy". Going Scripture alone, the Son's name is "Iesous/-n", unless one takes the Peshitta as Scripture. But if one does that, then the Peshitta makes it overtly clear that the Father is YHWH, so one cannot then take a different position with regards to Jesus being YHWH. Peshitta will give you a Ieshu, but it will give you the name YHWH for the Father also. Can't parse that out.

To get Jesus as Yeshua, and Jesus also as YHWH, one has to resort to modern interpellation, because there's no ancient Scripture manuscript that does that.

 

[Lulav]

I'll let you have the last say on this since it is the Christian Advice forum and we shouldn't be debating, I was just trying to show proper interpretation of the commandment.

 

[DennisTate]

I need help determining if it is Blasphemy to say "Oh Lord" in the context of express pain

"I got to the river so lonesome I wanted to die...oh Lord! And then I jumped..."

This passage if from a song, and well Im not sure if that would be using his name in vain, because would it not be the same as in saying "Oh Lord, Im in Pain".

But if its a sin, I want to give it up to please the Lord-- to live in sin no more.

Since you are genuinely concerned about this...... I believe that if you consciously...... try your best to turn that sentence into a prayer......... and empathize with whoever it is who is in pain........ or remember your own pain that you still have.......and commit that pain to Messiah Yeshua / Jesus ..... then that is very different that if you say or sing those words without thinking?!

 

[DennisTate]

Situation 1: Youre actually in pain
Situation 2: Youre singing a song

Or both....... and you will know if that song is powerful enough to set an example that hopefully somebody will be inspired by the song to begin to pray themselves?!

Some songs are far more likely than others to bring somebody to the place where the song inspires them to actually pray.

For centuries....... people had to sing songs in order to pass on the gospel.

It was the only open door that they still had left during the dark ages.

 

[DennisTate]

Not calling him out.

Maybe that is the key........ .you just determine in your mind to turn the song into a prayer.... and mean it..... and I think it would then be a good and valid use of the name "Lord."

 

[Winken]

So then it's not blasphemy?

IT IS NOT BLASPHEMY!!! Period.

 

[LoricaLady]

I need help determining if it is Blasphemy to say "Oh Lord" in the context of express pain

"I got to the river so lonesome I wanted to die...oh Lord! And then I jumped..."

This passage if from a song, and well Im not sure if that would be using his name in vain, because would it not be the same as in saying "Oh Lord, Im in Pain".

But if its a sin, I want to give it up to please the Lord-- to live in sin no more.

You can't blaspheme saying "Oh Lord" because the Father's Name is not Lord. In fact it is not God. Yes, He does answer prayers with that Name because He loves us and is merciful.

However, when Moses asked Him, at the burning bush, what His Name was, well in ancient Hebrew documents, like the 2,000 year old ones in the Dead Sea Scrolls, we see the answer written: YHWH.
They didn't use vowels in their writing back then so there is a lot of debate on how that is pronounced, Yahweh, Jehovah (there is no J in Hebrew) etc..

I say Yahuah. Why? Because the Savior's Name is Yahushua, sometimes shortened to Yeshua. What does Yahushah mean? Yahuah saves. Simple.

If you are not saying "Oh Lord" in any way that is meant to be disrespectful to the Almighty I personally don't see a problem.

 

[Conker]

If I stumped my toe and of course it hurt REALLY bad I then yelled out: Oh Fred !!!!! and my husbands name might be Fred, wouldnt he then think I was blaming him or calling him??

Im personally convicted of saying "Holy Cow" but thats just me

How come you think "Holy Cow" is wrong?

 

[Neogaia777]

I need help determining if it is Blasphemy to say "Oh Lord" in the context of express pain

"I got to the river so lonesome I wanted to die...oh Lord! And then I jumped..."

This passage if from a song, and well Im not sure if that would be using his name in vain, because would it not be the same as in saying "Oh Lord, Im in Pain".

But if its a sin, I want to give it up to please the Lord-- to live in sin no more.

"to live in sin no more."

Then what...?

God Bless!

 

[LoricaLady]

Problem: the only text we have of what the angel said is in Greek. We can manufacture a Hebrew or Aramaic text, but it will be that - a manufacture. The name we've got, from Scripture, is Iesoun. We can translate Scripture into Hebrew or Aramaic, if we want, but there is no very ancient manuscript that says Yeshua. They're all in Greek and they all says Iesous/Iesoun. We can look at the Peshitta, which comes a little later, and read that Iesous was translated into Aramaic.

We can assume that Jesus spoke Aramaic, but we don't have a Scripture that gives us his name in Aramaic, only Greek. The oldest Scriptures are in Greek.

So, we can use a translated name - Jesus, Yeshua, etc. - and consider the translation to be the name. It all depends on how important we think the literal text is.

It's a wonderful junction of tension between "Scripture Alone" belief, and the desire for "historical accuracy". Going Scripture alone, the Son's name is "Iesous/-n", unless one takes the Peshitta as Scripture. But if one does that, then the Peshitta makes it overtly clear that the Father is YHWH, so one cannot then take a different position with regards to Jesus being YHWH. Peshitta will give you a Ieshu, but it will give you the name YHWH for the Father also. Can't parse that out.

To get Jesus as Yeshua, and Jesus also as YHWH, one has to resort to modern interpellation, because there's no ancient Scripture manuscript that does that.

No, one does not have to resort to modern interpretation to get the word Yeshuah, the abbreviated form of Yahushuah, for Jesus. Ancient Scriptural, Hebrew, documents 2,000 years old and older show that the name of the one we call Joshuah was called actually Yahushuah. This is the same name given to the Savior. Further there is no J in Hebrew.

Names are very significant and important in the Word.

Also, the oldest existing copies of Scriptures may be in Greek (with a couple of exceptions, actually) but the early Church "fathers" admitted they had translated into Greek what was written in Hebrew. The Apostles used Hebrew, not Greek, to write the New Testament. Of course. That was their native language and the language of their Scriptures.

You say "It all depends on how important we think the literal text is." Welllll....The Scriptures tell us sternly not to add to, or subtract from, them. So I guess we can be sure the Almighty wants us to be literal. And it's HIS opinion that counts, not ours.

 

[Vicomte13]

the early Church "fathers" admitted they had translated into Greek what was written in Hebrew.

I see.
Could you show me that in the Scriptures, please?

You say "It all depends on how important we think the literal text is." Welllll....The Scriptures tell us sternly not to add to, or subtract from, them. So I guess we can be sure the Almighty wants us to be literal. And it's HIS opinion that counts, not ours.

Could you show me the oldest fragment containing any name of Jesus? (Hint, it's a piece of Mark, circa 80 AD. It's in Greek.)

 

[LoricaLady]

Viconte

I see.
Could you show me that in the Scriptures, please?



Could you show me the oldest fragment containing any name of Jesus? (Hint, it's a piece of Mark, circa 80 AD. It's in Greek.)

This is not really a debate forum and should not be used for such, but I will reply to you this one and only time.

ancient manuscripts with name of yahushua - Bing images

Please do your research in general. The term "Church fathers" commonly refers to people who came along hundreds of years after the Gospels were written. Therefore how could I possibly show you what they said in the Bible??

Whether your manuscript is the oldest or not is no doubt up for heavy debate Regardless, oldest is not necessarily, at all, the most accurate. People make mistakes at all periods in history while some cling to the truth throughout history. Again, the name Jesus could not possibly relate to the Savior since there is no J in Hebrew. Do you honestly think the Apostles called Him Jesus? Rhetorical Q. as I am not going on with any debate. It's between you and Yahushuah. and the Father. Blessings and bye.

 

[Vicomte13]

Again, the name Jesus could not possibly relate to the Savior since there is no J in Hebrew.

There isn't one in the Scriptures either. The Scriptures say Iesous and Iesoun.

 

[LoricaLady]

There isn't one in the Scriptures either. The Scriptures say Iesous and Iesoun.

Allow me to repeat. This...isn't...a....debate....forum.

 

[Solomons Porch]

How come you think "Holy Cow" is wrong?

Again, goofey as it sounds and I am in no way suggesting others should do or feel the same, its truly just something HE pointed out to me that HE didn't like me saying. HE let me know quickly that cows ain't holy, only HE is holy, therefore I try to guard my mouth, no biggie