As far as holding jurisdiction over Jerusalem is concerned the time of the Gentiles came to an end in 1967 when the Jews took full control of the city. Before then, the Gentiles occupied Jerusalem for far longer than the 42 months you equate with the four year Jewish/Roman war, and if the earthly Jerusalem is forever cast out, why does it continue to exist?
If the earthly Jerusalem was the Jerusalem of the new covenant, then I would agree with you. However, the heavenly Jerusalem is the Jerusalem of the new covenant (Galatians 4:25, hebrews 12:22).
The earthly Jerusalem is still a place, that we can physically go visit, and was even after the destruction of the temple because where it was is a physical location on earth, and the earth stilll exists. But it is not the Jerusalem of the new covenant. It was cast out, as in no longer the Jerusalem of the covenant with God.
But the heavenly Jerusalem has not yet come to us and until it does, we will be going to the earthly Jerusalem to await the heavenly Jerusalem which we will not see until after the new heavens and the new earth are created and again, if the presently existing Jerusalem was cast out in 70 A.D., why does it continue to exist still?
the earthly Jerusalem is a physical location on earth and still exists, because the piece of land still exists. It was cast out of the covenant. Under the new covenant, the earthly Jerusalem is no longer where we come to. Paul is very clear the earthly Jerusalem was not a part of the new covenant (galatians 4:24-31).
The believers of the 1st century had already come to the heavenly Jerusalem, So I'm not sure how You, a believer, have not yet come to the heavenly Jerusalem?
Hebrews 12:22 Instead, you have come to Mount Zion, to the city of the living God, the heavenly Jerusalem.
How else could Jerusalem have a central role in this forthcoming event?
What forthcoming event? earthly Jerusalem played its role in 70ad.
Luke 21:20-22 But when you see Jerusalem surrounded by armies, you will know that her desolation is near. Then let those who are in Judea flee to the mountains, let those in the city get out, and let those in the country stay out of the city. For these are the days of vengeance, to fulfill all that is written.
He draws no relation between the ten northern tribes and the Gentiles at all and while the cited passage of Hosea appear to be about the ten northern tribes, Paul has told us that it is not. What He does say is that the Gentiles have now been included with the Jews in the vessels of mercy and cited Hosea 1:10 and 2:23 as evidence that God had the Gentiles in mind before hand.
And who is the subject of Hosea 1:10? The northern kingdom of Israel. So your argument does not surmount that Paul applied a passage that was specifically about the northern kingdom, to the gentiles of his day.
But they did not become Gentiles and what Gentiles descended from them?
The term gentile is determined by covenant status. Those under the old covenant were Israel, those outside of the old covenant were not Israel, but the nations. When the northern kingdom was divorced, they were ousted from the old covenant. Thus they became as gentiles.
And since they were deported and resettled into Assyria, it stands that they probably mixed with the Assyrians or other nations that were resettled among them. However, there is no history as to what happened to the decedents of the exiled and scattered northern kingdom, only myths and legends. Unless someone has their genealogy dating back 2700 some years ago to pre Assyrian exile, no one would know if they actually descended from the northern kingdom.
For those of the divorced northern kingdom that did not move south to the southern kingdom and were not deported, they probably mixed with the Assyrians that settled in the northern territory. Their descendants probably became the samaritans, who were not considered Jews according to 1st century Judiasm.
Is the Assyrian empire the only empire and kingdom throughout which they were dispersed?
Well according to the Bible they were deported and resettled in the Assyrian empire.
1 kings 17:23 Finally, the LORD removed Israel from His presence, as He had declared through all His servants the prophets. So Israel was exiled from their homeland into Assyria, where they are to this day.
Did not the Babylonians leave some people behind after taking the inhabitants of Judah and Jerusalem into captivity?
I believe the poor, correct?
How could Revelation 7 be anything but literal?
Revelation consists of visions and symbols.
How could the forty year wandering in the desert be foreshadowing 1st century's 40 year time period which ended with the destruction of Jerusalem and the Temple?
While the 1st tabernacle was still standing "presently" in the 1st century, the way into the Most holy place was not yet manifest.
Hebrews 9:8-9 The Holy Spirit indicating this, that the way into the Holiest of All was not yet made manifest while the first tabernacle is still standing. It is symbolic for the present time in which both gifts and sacrifices are offered which cannot make him who performed the service perfect in regard to the conscience—
The destruction of the temple is associated with coming judgment of Christ and resurrection. Thus, just as it was 40 years of testing in the wilderness from their release of slavery before they entered the promise land, it was 40 years of testing, after release from spiritual slavery (30ad; the crucifixion) until the destruction of the temple (70ad). If the standing of temple in the 1st century was still present, it symbolized the way into the most holy place (heaven) was not yet manifest. Thus the destruction of the temple symbolized the way into the most holy place (heaven) had been manifest.
Israel's exile from Egypt is only regarded as a foreshadow of Christ returning from Egypt after a brief exile because of a threat on His life, but only because the Gospels say so. As for the rest, they do not qualify as foreshadows because they are never called foreshadows. If anything at all they are contrasts between the failures of Israel and the successes of our Lord.
So it's just coincidence then that Israel was tested for 40 years in the wilderness with the same tests that Jesus faced for 40 days in the wilderness?
Yet it is because of their eventual receiving of the New Covenant that the Jews retain their inheritance.
What is the inheritance that receive under the new covenant that is different than the gentiles? and what scripture do you have to support this assertion?
That remnant being large enough to continue abiding as a viable people and nation. (Zech. 13:9)
Can you elaborate?
Does He also not have joint-heirs?
Yes he does.
Where did Christ receive the kingdom? Heaven (daniel 7:13-14, luke 19:12). From Where does Christ have all dominion, power, and authority? Heaven (ephesians 1:20-21).
Why would Christians not be co-heirs with Christ in heaven?
Land restoration pertains to Israel only. No other nation or people are given such a promise.
That doesn't answer my question. What NT scripture shows land restoration for those of the new covenant?
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