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In Romans 10, Paul is discussing the Lord Jesus, and in verse 13, he writes (NKJV, emphasis mine):
For “whoever calls on the name of the LORD shall be saved.”
The reason "LORD" is capitalized by the New King James Version here is that in Joel 2:32, the original verse Paul quotes, the word used is YHWH/Jehovah. Yet Paul uses this verse in reference to Jesus.
Is the person referenced by the word "Lord" in Romans 10:13 the same Person referenced by "Lord" in Romans 10:9 and Romans 10:12 (i.e., Jesus)? If so, then would the referent of Joel 2:32's "YHWH" be the same Person referenced by "Lord" in Romans 10:13 since Paul quotes Joel? Thanks!
For “whoever calls on the name of the LORD shall be saved.”
The reason "LORD" is capitalized by the New King James Version here is that in Joel 2:32, the original verse Paul quotes, the word used is YHWH/Jehovah. Yet Paul uses this verse in reference to Jesus.
Is the person referenced by the word "Lord" in Romans 10:13 the same Person referenced by "Lord" in Romans 10:9 and Romans 10:12 (i.e., Jesus)? If so, then would the referent of Joel 2:32's "YHWH" be the same Person referenced by "Lord" in Romans 10:13 since Paul quotes Joel? Thanks!