Is God Unjust to Save Some?

[Bobber]

Would God have been unjust to pass over every sinner and save none? If God is not unjust by saving none, then surely he is not unjust to mercifully save some while passing over others.

What do you say? Is God unjust to save some?

I'm amazed at how some of the past have been considered scholarly and they come up with this stuff. So his reasoning is God can show partiality or be a favorite of people and the reason it's OK is because all would be lost anyway so have at it.

Only one thing he was forgetting. It goes right cross grained to what he has revealed his character is. To me it's like saying if the world was going to end in three days it's OK for me to go in and rob the bank. What's it matter? Well it matters a lot. Character is always important. Always and in all times.

 

[food4thought]

Hi Bill, thank you for responding.

Good day,

Context is king....

Strong's Greek: 3956. πᾶς (pas) -- all, every

Note that the definition does not say all or every kind, it says all, every. Any qualification of that would have to come from the text.

First of all, then, I urge that supplications, prayers, intercessions, and thanksgivings be made for all people, for kings and all who are in high positions, that we may lead a peaceful and quiet life, godly and dignified in every way. This is good, and it is pleasing in the sight of God our Savior, who desires all people to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth. For there is one God, and there is one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus, who gave himself as a ransom for all, which is the testimony given at the proper time.

Kings and people in High place are kinds of people... or all kinds of people.

That verse is simply stating that we should especially pray for our leaders. It is not a limiting clause on "all people". Otherwise, he would not be saying we should pray for one another, the lost, etc.

Does Jesus mediate for all men?

Did Jesus die to ransom all men?

Yes. 1 John 2:2 NASB and He Himself is the propitiation for our sins; and not for ours only, but also for those of the whole world. His sacrifice was sufficient for all men, but efficacious only for those who believe.

Or does he do these things for all types of men.

All would include all types.

He desires that which he can not have.... not true.

Does God desire evil people to commit rape, murder, etc.? Or does our freedom necessitate the possibility of such things despite God's hatred for such acts?

Would you suggest he try a little harder, or is he doing the best he can?

Be kind, sir...

In Him,

Bill

God bless you;
Michael

 

[Hammster]

I don't believe he did. He was writing to the church, so naturally he said "us" - that doesn't mean that God's love, and Jesus' death, were only for the church though.

You can go ahead and make that argument. But not from the passage in question. It cannot mean what it never meant.