"Was not Abraham our father justified by works, when he had offered Isaac his son upon the altar?" James 2:21
I am just repeating what scriptures say.
Both verse show that Abraham had an obedient faith and not Luther's faith only.
And James shows Abraham was justified by his obedient works.
Gal 3:6 says Abraham believed God, it does not say Abraham had belief only. We know from Hebrews 11:8,17 that Abraham's belief included obedience.
Abraham was not justified by works of the flesh, meaning he was not justified by keeping God's law flawlessly and perfectly for he sinned.
He was justified by faith and again from Hebrews 11 we know his faith included obedience not a dead faith void of obedience. No verse ever says he was justified by faith alone.
Romans 4:5 "But to him that worketh not, but believeth on him that justifieth the ungodly, his faith is counted for righteousness." Abraham had faith in Genesis 12 and Abraham's faith included his obedience in moving from his house, land and kindred, Genesis 12 cf Hebrews 11:8. So his obedient faith would have already been counted as righteousness in Genesis 12. His being justified was a process from Genesis 12 to Genesis 22:12. The faith onlyist cannot show were Abraham was justified at onw quick moment in time when he had 'faith only'.