- Aug 4, 2013
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At our Knights of Columbus council meeting on Tuesday, our chaplain gave us a Lenten presentation. During this presentation, he referred to a Scripture passage in which he stated that Jesus said we are to "do penance."
After the meeting, I asked him the following:
ME: "Father, do I rightly understand that performing of penance is a way of making restitution or payment for our sins?"
He agrees. I wanted to be sure I understood the concept correctly.
ME: "Well, the verse you quote uses the Greek word "metanoia," which means a change of mind or a change of heart. I don't see any suggestion of payment for our sins in there, but rather a change of mind. Could you perhaps help me synthesize these two views?"
He agreed that the word means to change one's mind or direction, but didn't seem able to provide an immediate answer for me. I will be interested in how he responds to that, but this is another case where it appears that the Latin translators have played a little fast and loose with the Greek in order to support their dogmatic statements.
I'm wondering how much more scriptural juggling I might find if I really get down to looking at the Douay-Rheems vs the Greek?
PS. I'm also wondering if I might have put a bit of a target on my back.
After the meeting, I asked him the following:
ME: "Father, do I rightly understand that performing of penance is a way of making restitution or payment for our sins?"
He agrees. I wanted to be sure I understood the concept correctly.
ME: "Well, the verse you quote uses the Greek word "metanoia," which means a change of mind or a change of heart. I don't see any suggestion of payment for our sins in there, but rather a change of mind. Could you perhaps help me synthesize these two views?"
He agreed that the word means to change one's mind or direction, but didn't seem able to provide an immediate answer for me. I will be interested in how he responds to that, but this is another case where it appears that the Latin translators have played a little fast and loose with the Greek in order to support their dogmatic statements.
I'm wondering how much more scriptural juggling I might find if I really get down to looking at the Douay-Rheems vs the Greek?
PS. I'm also wondering if I might have put a bit of a target on my back.