When Christ said he that believes and is baptised shall be saved, dont insert in your mind
'he that believes and is WATER baptised shall be saved'
1) F.F. Bruce: “
baptism in the New Testament is always baptism in water unless the context shows it to be something else; that is to say, the word is always to be understood literally unless the context indicates a figurative meaning” (
Questions Answered, p. 106). There is nothing in Mk 16:16 that shows baptized is being used figuratively, it therefore is a literal burial in water.
2) Comparing Mark's account of the great commission with Matthew 28:19-20 we find disciples (humans) commanded to go and baptize. Humans administer water baptism as Phillip in Acts 8.
Contrasting baptisms
Water baptism per the NT:
commanded
administered by humans
saves/remits sins
to be taught/observed
lasts till the end of the world
Holy Spirit baptism:
never commanded, only promised to the Apostles
Administered by God without intervention of mans' hands
does not save/remits sins
not the baptism to be taught/observed per Mt 28:19,20
was a prophecy of Joel that was fulfilled and ended in the 1st century
sdowney717 said:
Look at the context, Christ baptizes with the Holy Spirit and fire, not with water as in John's baptism.
And for confirmation that this is a spiritual Holy Spirit baptism, the one Christ does, Christ describes some supernatural sign events will follow those so baptised.
Mark 16:15-18King James Version (KJV)
15 And he said unto them, Go ye into all the world, and preach the gospel to every creature.
16 He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned.
17 And these signs shall follow them that believe; In my name shall they cast out devils; they shall speak with new tongues;
18 They shall take up serpents; and if they drink any deadly thing, it shall not hurt them; they shall lay hands on the sick, and they shall recover.
Matthew gives more information, Matthew 3:11:
"
I indeed baptize you with water unto repentance: but he that cometh after me is mightier than I, whose shoes I am not worthy to bear: he shall baptize you with the Holy Ghost, and with fire:"
To whom do both pronouns "you" refer to?
In the context John is speaking to Pharisees that came to his baptism Matt 3:7.
Why would John say to these Pharisees "I baptize
YOU with water" when John had not done so! (Luke 7:30). It become apparent that John is using the pronouns "you" in a generic sense where they are not referring to anyone particularly he was talking to. There is an old saying "You can lead a horse to water, but you cannot make it drink". Both of the pronouns "you" are being used generically and not referring to anyone specifically. So what John is doing is announcing to the people type of baptism he baptized with and the type of baptism Christ will baptize with. John is not promising Christ's baptisms to them or anyone of us today. Therefore it cannot be told who the pronouns "you" refer to from the immediate context of Mt 3:11 so we have to look to the fulfillment of John's words to find out who the 'you' is that will be baptized with the Holy Spirit. In Acts 1:1-5 Christ is with His APOSTLES and Christ refers to John's word in Acts 1:5. Now we know that the "you" that was promised baptism with the Holy Ghost was the Apostles and not anyone today. And it was just the Apostles in Acts 2 that was baptized with the Holy Spirit per Christ's promise to them in Acts 1:1-5.
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In Mark 16:17 the nearest plural antecedent of the plural pronoun "them" would be "the eleven" in verse 14. In this context it was the disciples that did not believe Mark 16:11-13 and Jesus upbraided those disciples for their unbelief Mark 16:14. So "them that believe" would be of those disciples that did not believe. The plural pronouns "they" and "them" in Mark 16:17-20 refer to these disciples, especially note verse 20 how "they" and "them" do refer to those disciples.
In 2 Corinthians 12:12 Paul calls these signs "signs of an Apostle" not signs of a believer. Some people's interpretation of Mark 16:15-20 is that each and every believer, even today, will have all these miraculous signs. First, even in the first century when they did possess miraculous signs not all believers had all these signs, some believers had none at all, 1 Corinthians 12:29-30. Secondly, the purpose of signs and miracles was fulfilled and these signs ceased around the end of the 1st century, 1Cor 13; Eph 4.