IN Acts 6:14 , what is Jesus DESTROYING ?

Dan Perez

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Acts 6:14 reads , For we have heard him saying that this Jesus of Nazarene will DESTROY , this place will change the CUSTOMS which Moses delivered to us .

#1 What is Jesus going to DESTROY / KATALYO.

#2 Notice it is the same Greek word used in Acts 5:38 , DISTROYED /KATALYO

#3 Why the Customs ?

#4 It seem that Jesus is coming to set aside the CUSTOMS and the Law of Moses !

#5 When did Jesus set the Law of Moses , ASIDE ? WHENNN !

#6 Something had to take it PLACE ?

I say Peter was was slowly set aside and PAUL'S message became DOMINANT , Rom 1:1 and Rom 16:25 and 26 .

dan p
 

Soyeong

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Jesus is not destroying anything in Acts 6:14, but just the opposite, in Acts 6:13, it is false witnesses who are the ones who are claiming that, so you should reconsider promoting a position that is supported by false witnesses.
 
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Maria Billingsley

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Acts 6:14 reads , For we have heard him saying that this Jesus of Nazarene will DESTROY , this place will change the CUSTOMS which Moses delivered to us .

#1 What is Jesus going to DESTROY / KATALYO.

#2 Notice it is the same Greek word used in Acts 5:38 , DISTROYED /KATALYO

#3 Why the Customs ?

#4 It seem that Jesus is coming to set aside the CUSTOMS and the Law of Moses !

#5 When did Jesus set the Law of Moses , ASIDE ? WHENNN !

#6 Something had to take it PLACE ?

I say Peter was was slowly set aside and PAUL'S message became DOMINANT , Rom 1:1 and Rom 16:25 and 26 .

dan p
The destruction of Jerusalem and the Temple in 70AD was the end of that age. We now have a New Covenant with Jesus Christ of Nazareth.
Blessings.
 
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Emun

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Jesus is not destroying anything in Acts 6:14, but just the opposite, in Acts 6:13, it is false witnesses who are the ones who are claiming that, so you should reconsider promoting a position that is supported by false witnesses.
Jesus destroyed the temple by sending the Romans. The end of the law was also taught by Jesus and his apostles, especially in the letters of Paul.

So why does Acts call them "false witnesses"? The Expositor's Greek Testament explains it this way: “false,” inasmuch as they perverted the meaning of Stephen’s words, which were no blasphemy against Moses or against God, although no doubt he had taught the transitory nature of the Mosaic law
 
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Dan Perez

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Jesus is not destroying anything in Acts 6:14, but just the opposite, in Acts 6:13, it is false witnesses who are the ones who are claiming that, so you should reconsider promoting a position that is supported by false witnesses.
 
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Dan Perez

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I have not seen a TEMPLE with priests or Priest minister the ATONEMENT that is required , once a year ?

All we ever see is one WALL where Jews go to pray .

We see that Judah and Israel are scattered all over the world !

So , when Jesus was CRUCIFIED the Law of Moses and ATONEMENT , is gone forever as Heb 9:15 says !!

And still believe that Paul 's message began and is DOMINANT and will be dominant until the COMING / PAROUSIA , of Christ comes for US !!

dan p
 
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Dan Perez

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Jesus destroyed the temple by sending the Romans. The end of the law was also taught by Jesus and his apostles, especially in the letters of Paul.

So why does Acts call them "false witnesses"? The Expositor's Greek Testament explains it this way: “false,” inasmuch as they perverted the meaning of Stephen’s words, which were no blasphemy against Moses or against God, although no doubt he had taught the transitory nature of the Mos
There have been FALSE WITTNESS since Genesis and began with Lucifer !!

dan p
 
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Dan Perez

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The destruction of Jerusalem and the Temple in 70AD was the end of that age. We now have a New Covenant with Jesus Christ of Nazareth.
Blessings.
In Gal 2:7 Peter was preaching Circumcision and in Gal 2:14 was trying to have GENTILES LIVE after the manner of the Jews and tying to compel Gentiles to ADOPT Jewish CUSTOMS and RITES .and in verse 13 , Paul calls it HYPOCRISY .
Where then did the NEW COVENANT then begin ?

Would like to see a verse , PLEASE ?

dan p
 
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Maria Billingsley

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In Gal 2:7 Peter was preaching Circumcision and in Gal 2:14 was trying to have GENTILES LIVE after the manner of the Jews and tying to compel Gentiles to ADOPT Jewish CUSTOMS and RITES .and in verse 13 , Paul calls it HYPOCRISY .
Where then did the NEW COVENANT then begin ?

Would like to see a verse , PLEASE ?

dan p
Jesus Christ of Nazareth established the New Covenant after His resurrection. Blessings
Hebrews 8
For if that first covenant had been faultless, then no place would have been sought for a second. 8Because finding fault with them, He says: “Behold, the days are coming, says the Lord, when I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah— 9not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day when I took them by the hand to lead them out of the land of Egypt; because they did not continue in My covenant, and I disregarded them, says the Lord. 10For this is the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel after those days, says the Lord: I will put My laws in their mind and write them on their hearts; and I will be their God, and they shall be My people. 11None of them shall teach his neighbor, and none his brother, saying, ‘Know the Lord,’ for all shall know Me, from the least of them to the greatest of them. 12For I will be merciful to their unrighteousness, and their sins and their lawless deeds I will remember no more.”
13In that He says, “A new covenant,” He has made the first obsolete. Now what is becoming obsolete and growing old is ready to vanish away
 
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Dan Perez

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Jesus is not destroying anything in Acts 6:14, but just the opposite, in Acts 6:13, it is false witnesses who are the ones who are claiming that, so you should reconsider promoting a position that is supported by false witnesses.
And it says , SHALL DESTROY / KAYALYO is in the FUTURE TENSE ACTIVE VOICE , INDICATIVE MOOD and is SINGULAR .

Who was destroyed , IT was Jesus .and as we see , that Israel does not yet have a TEMPLE and Israel does not yet have a temple , until Christ comes back to save Israel , Rom 11:26 ,

So it is yet FUTURE !!

Dan p
 
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Jesus destroyed the temple by sending the Romans. The end of the law was also taught by Jesus and his apostles, especially in the letters of Paul.

So why does Acts call them "false witnesses"? The Expositor's Greek Testament explains it this way: “false,” inasmuch as they perverted the meaning of Stephen’s words, which were no blasphemy against Moses or against God, although no doubt he had taught the transitory nature of the Mosaic law
Jesus sending the roman legion to destroy the temple? nonsense! go back to your history books!
the end of the law was thought by Jesus? and the apostles? A lie, Jesus who is by the way the SON OF GOD was teaching the commandments in the temple.

You blaspheme the name of JESUS!

A commentary is a commentary not scripture!

JFF
 
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Clare73

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Acts 6:14 reads , For we have heard him saying that this Jesus of Nazarene will DESTROY , this place will change the CUSTOMS which Moses delivered to us .

#1 What is Jesus going to DESTROY / KATALYO.
#2 Notice it is the same Greek word used in Acts 5:38 , DISTROYED /KATALYO

Excellent question!

Jesus was referring to his body (Jn 2:20-21).

#3 Why the Customs ?

#4 It seem that Jesus is coming to set aside the CUSTOMS and the Law of Moses !

#5 When did Jesus set the Law of Moses , ASIDE ? WHENNN !

On the cross. . .when he "abolished in his flesh the law with its commandments and regulations (i.e., sacrifices, food laws, defilements, cleansings, feasts, etc.)" which was the barrier, the dividing wall of hostility between the Jews and Gentiles, thereby creating in himself
one (Gal 3:28) new man out of the two, and in this one body reconciling both Gentile and Jew to God through the cross, by which he put to death their hostility (Eph 2:15-16).
#6 Something had to take it PLACE ?

Nothing had to take the place of the commandments and regulations regarding sacrifices, food laws, defilements, cleansings feasts, etc.,
which were given to reveal the nature of sin (spiritual defilement) and its remedy (sacrifice and cleansing), which
laws were fulfilled on the cross, and made obsolete with the Mosaic Covenant (Heb 8:13) conditioned on them (Ex 19-24, Dt 27:26).

I say Peter was was slowly set aside and PAUL'S message became DOMINANT , Rom 1:1 and Rom 16:25 and 26 .

Two gospels is always contra-NT, whether it be with and without circumcision required, or it be with a ministry to the Gentiles (Paul) and a ministry to the Jews (Peter).
Two gospels is a misreading of Gal 2:7, where the two different ministries do not refer to two different gospels, but to two different peoples to whom the same Gospel will be ministered.

Both Peter and Paul preached the same one and only gospel--salvation through the blood (Ro 3:25) from the wrath of God on sin (Ro 5:9)
by faith in and trust on (not by works) the person and atoning work of Jesus Christ (Eph 2:8-9).
 
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Soyeong
Why are you treating what Acts 6:13-14 directly states as the words of false witnesses as through what they said is true? Promoting a position support by the words of false witnesses is also acting as a false witness.
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Soyeong

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Jesus destroyed the temple by sending the Romans. The end of the law was also taught by Jesus and his apostles, especially in the letters of Paul.
In Matthew 5:17, Jesus specifically said that he did not come to abolish the law, and in Romans 3:31, Paul confirmed that our faith does not abolish the law, but rather our faith upholds yet, yet you are seeking to abolishing it rather than uphold it through faith. In other words, you do not have faith in God to correctly divide between good and evil through His law.

The Bible often uses the same terms to describe aspects of the nature of God as it does to describe aspects of the nature of God's law, such as with it being holy, righteous, and good (Romans 7:12), or with justice, mercy, and faithfulness being weightier matters of the law (Matthew 23:23), and it could not be accurately described as such if it were not God's instructions for how to act in accordance with those aspects of God nature. God's nature is eternal, so any instructions that God has ever given for how to act in accordance with His nature are eternally valid, such as with God's righteousness and righteous laws being eternal (Psalms 119:142, 119:160, and the only way for laws for how to act in accordance with God's nature to be abolished is for God to also be abolished.

For example, God's law reveals that it in accordance with God's righteousness to help the poor, so if that were to be abolished such that it was no longer in accordance with God's righteousness to help the poor, then there would no longer exist a God who has that as an aspect of their nature. So the rejection of the Law of Moses is a the rejection of the existence of the God of Israel, whose nature is described by its, and the Son is in the exact nature of the God of Israel (Hebrews 1:3), which he expressed through living in sinless obedience to the Law of Moses, so it is also the rejection of the existence of the Son. In other words, God's word can't be abolished without also abolishing God's word made flesh.
So why does Acts call them "false witnesses"? The Expositor's Greek Testament explains it this way: “false,” inasmuch as they perverted the meaning of Stephen’s words, which were no blasphemy against Moses or against God, although no doubt he had taught the transitory nature of the Mosaic law
Regardless of the degree to which they perverted the meaning go Stephen's words or the degree that they made things up full cloth, he did not say that they said he did, and all positions that use the words of false witnesses to support them should be reconsidered. Stephen said nothing to teach that the Mosaic Law is transitory, so you are also falsely putting words in his mouth, especially because if he had said that, then he would have been speaking blasphemy against Moses and against God. All of God's righteous laws are eternal, so they do not have a transitory nature, and neither does the God of Israel.
 
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Soyeong

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I have not seen a TEMPLE with priests or Priest minister the ATONEMENT that is required , once a year ?

All we ever see is one WALL where Jews go to pray .

We see that Judah and Israel are scattered all over the world !

So , when Jesus was CRUCIFIED the Law of Moses and ATONEMENT , is gone forever as Heb 9:15 says !!

And still believe that Paul 's message began and is DOMINANT and will be dominant until the COMING / PAROUSIA , of Christ comes for US !!

dan p
The Law of Moses existed before the constructions of the 1st temple and laws in regard to temple practice that weren't followed after its destruction were once again followed after the construction of the 2nd temple, so its existence is not dependent on the existence of the temple. In Titus 2:11-14, Jesus gave himself to redeem us from all lawlessness and to purify for himself a people of his own possession who are zealous for doing good works, so the way to believe in what Jesus accomplished through the cross is by becoming zealous for doing good works in obedience to God's law (Acts 21:20). All of God's righteous laws are eternal (Psalms 119:160), so they will never be gone. Christ spent his ministry teaching his followers to obey God's law by word and by exampCale, so obeying it is the way to believe in his coming.

There have been FALSE WITTNESS since Genesis and began with Lucifer !!

dan p
Please acknowledge that Acts 6:13-14 is stated as being the words of false witness and that we should therefore treat what they said as being false.
 
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ralliann

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In Gal 2:7 Peter was preaching Circumcision and in Gal 2:14 was trying to have GENTILES LIVE after the manner of the Jews and tying to compel Gentiles to ADOPT Jewish CUSTOMS and RITES .and in verse 13 , Paul calls it HYPOCRISY .
Where then did the NEW COVENANT then begin ?
This is not true. Peter was behaving as a hypocrit by withdrawing table fellowship when Other Jew's were present. Otherwise he did not. Paul tells you in Galatians about why the council happened and the decision reached at the council. Thus Peter was being hypocritical in his own judgement made at the council. He did so out of fear......
Gal 2:2 And I went up by revelation, and communicated unto them that gospel which I preach among the Gentiles, but privately to them which were of reputation, lest by any means I should run, or had run, in vain. {privately: or, severally }
3 But neither Titus, who was with me, being a Greek, was compelled to be circumcised:
4 And that because of false brethren unawares brought in, who came in privily to spy out our liberty which we have in Christ Jesus, that they might bring us into bondage:
5 To whom we gave place by subjection, no, not for an hour; that the truth of the gospel might continue with you.

The covenant of circumcision was made with Abraham.
The Horeb covenant was not made with Abraham


De 5:2 The LORD our God made a covenant with us in Horeb.
De 5:3 The LORD made not this covenant with our fathers, but with us, even us, who are all of us here alive this day.
 
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Clare73

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Why are you treating what Acts 6:13-14 directly states as the words of false witnesses as through what they said is true? Promoting a position support by the words of false witnesses is also acting as a false witness.

You don't understand the text, do you? . . .I'll explain again.

Jesus was referring to his body, the Jews thought he was referring to the Temple (Jn 2:20-21).
To destroy the Temple would be to destroy their customs from the law of Moses, particularly the sacrifices,
but also, for example, the Day of Atonement.
However, they were not false witnesses in their error (Jesus destroying the Temple) that thereby he would abolish the sacrifices, food laws, defilements, cleansings, feasts (Day of Atonement), etc. (Eph 2:15).

Do you not really understand these things?
Or are you being a false witness?
 
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Soyeong

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You don't understand the text, do you? . . .I'll explain again.

Jesus was referring to his body, the Jews thought he was referring to the Temple (Jn 2:20:21).
To destroy the Temple would be to destroy their customs from the law of Moses, particularly the sacrifices,
but also, for example, the Day of Atonement.
However, they were not false witnesses in their error (Jesus would destroy the Temple) that thereby he would abolish the sacrifices, food laws, defilements, cleansings, feasts (Day of Atonement), etc. (Eph 2:15).

Do you not really understand these things?
Or are you being a false witness?
Acts 6:13 and they set up false witnesses who said, “This man never ceases to speak words against this holy place and the law, 14 for we have heard him say that this Jesus of Nazareth will destroy this place and will change the customs that Moses delivered to us.”

It states that they set up false witnesses who said that, so neither Stephen nor Jesus actually said those things. The Law of Moses existed before the 1st temple was built and laws in regard to temple practice that were not followed after its destruction were once again followed after the construction of the 2nd temple, so there is nothing about the destruction of the 2nd temple that means that the customs of Moses have been destroyed. In Matthew 5:17-19, Jesus specifically said that he came not to abolish the law and warned that those who relax the least part of it or teach others to do that will be called least in the Kingdom, so he did not do that. You still have neglected to give a single reason for why Ephesians 2:15 should be interpreted as referring to the Law of Moses and have neglected to counter any of the reasons that I have given for why it could not be referring to the Law of Moses.
 
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Clare73

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Acts 6:13 and they set up false witnesses who said, “This man never ceases to speak words against this holy place and the law, 14 for we have heard him say that this Jesus of Nazareth will destroy this place and will change the customs that Moses delivered to us.”
It states that they set up false witnesses who said that, so neither Stephen nor Jesus actually said those things.

Correct. . .Jesus was talking about his body when he used the word Temple (Jn 2:20-21).

The Law of Moses existed before the 1st temple was built and laws in regard to temple practice that were not followed after its destruction were once again followed after the construction of the 2nd temple, so there is nothing about the destruction of the 2nd temple that means that the customs of Moses have been destroyed. In Matthew 5:17-19, Jesus specifically said that he came not to abolish the law and warned that those who relax the least part of it or teach others to do that will be called least in the Kingdom, so he did not do that. You still have neglected to give a single reason for why Ephesians 2:15 should be interpreted as referring to the Law of Moses and have neglected to counter any of the reasons that I have given for why it could not be referring to the Law of Moses.

See my last comment on post #90 there.
.
 
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