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Implied meaning biblical?

Discussion in 'Bibliology & Hermeneutics' started by Ephfourfive, Jan 15, 2021.

  1. Ephfourfive

    Ephfourfive Active Member

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    There is explicit scripture but also and implicit or opposite meaning, are these implicit meanings biblical?

    Example

    Jn 8: 32 And ye shall know the truth, and the truth shall make you free.

    The implicit meaning would be that false doctrine, error, or heresy causes Bondage or slavery.
     
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  2. com7fy8

    com7fy8 Well-Known Member Supporter

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    yes
     
  3. Dave L

    Dave L Well-Known Member Supporter

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    I interpret "all things work together for good to those who love the Lord" as all things work together for bad for those who do not. And also "all things work together" as in the sense of predestination.
     
  4. 2PhiloVoid

    2PhiloVoid Living between Dialectic and Paradox! Supporter

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    Some seemingly implicit meanings could be "biblical," but whether or not they are will depend upon some additional contexts and the conceptual referents involved.

    For instance. If we look at the example you gave, we'd have to clarify some things in order to assess that we are indeed perceiving an intended implication. Otherwise, if we don't clarifty contexts and conceptual referents, we'll end up dong "eisgesis" rather than actual "exegesis." We could also be begging the question more than once making further deductive assumptions about the overall meaning. We need to ask:

    1) What specific ideas make up the truth Jesus is speaking about?

    2) How is this verse related to other parts of the same passage or the same book in which it is found?

    3) What specifically is the nature of the "freedom" Jesus refers to? Freedom from what?


    So, I think the answer to your question is: maybe.
     
    Last edited: Jan 15, 2021
  5. Ephfourfive

    Ephfourfive Active Member

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    what about the use of person name such as Lk 3:2 the word of the Lord came into John does that only apply to John as opposed to a verse like Jesus said to his disciples, that would apply to all disciples?
     
  6. Dave L

    Dave L Well-Known Member Supporter

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    Jesus taught implied meaning in the Sermon on the Mount. Instead of simply not stealing, he taught giving. Instead of not killing enemies he taught loving them instead. In fact, all NT ethics come from what the law implies.
     
  7. Dan Perez

    Dan Perez Member

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    Hi and here is my explanation of John 8:32 !

    #1 , THE Greek words YE SHALL KNOW /GINOSKO is in the Greek FUTURE TENSE , MID VOICE , and INDICATIVE MOOD !

    #2 I believe that the Greek FUTURE TENSE is used , because this will happen during the first 3 1/2 YEARS of the Great Tribulation , called JACOB'S TROUBLE !

    #3 The next Greek word , THE TRUTH / ALETHEIA is in the ACCUSATIVE CASE which is the the DIRECT OBJECT speaks to the LIMIT OF THE ACTION , of Truth !!

    #4 The Greek words SHALL MAKE / ELEUTHEROO is also in the Greek FUTURE TENSE and Indicative mood which means it is a FACT !!

    #5 , The Greek word YOU / HYMAS is also in the ACCUSATIVE CASE and is Limited to those in JACOBS TROUBLE !

    #6 The last Greek word FREE / ELEUTHEROO is also in the FUTUFE TENSE ACTIVE VOICE , and in INDICATIVE MOOD of a FACT to know and understand the needed TRUTH during the GREAT TRIBULATION !!

    dan p
     
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