If they are not speaking in tongues then what are they doing?

JohnB445

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I have witnessed the gifts of the Holy Spirit, also I don't see any proof to the claim that these were only available during the apostolic age.

So there are 3 options.

1. Either its powered by the Holy Spirit
2. Powered by Satan
3. Or they are faking it.

Option number 1 seems more rational to me. As Jesus said a kingdom divided by itself will not stand, and there is no proof that it was only available in a certain period of time.
 

eleos1954

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I have witnessed the gifts of the Holy Spirit, also I don't see any proof to the claim that these were only available during the apostolic age.

So there are 3 options.

1. Either its powered by the Holy Spirit
2. Powered by Satan
3. Or they are faking it.

Option number 1 seems more rational to me. As Jesus said a kingdom divided by itself will not stand, and there is no proof that it was only available in a certain period of time.

Could be #2 and/or #3

The issue with it is when the gift of tongues was given at Pentecost, the bible is clear they spoke in a known language ... that each heard in their native language. Gift of tongues can and does happen occasionally still ... I haven't seen it or experienced it myself, but others claim it has happened. But there is no reason why it couldn't.

The reason it was given at Pentecost is because there were huge amounts of people from numerous places attending.

Acts 5

5Now there were dwelling in Jerusalem God-fearing Jews from every nation under heaven. 6And when this sound rang out, a crowd came together in bewilderment, because each one heard them speaking his own language.

7In wonder and amazement, they asked, “Are not all these men who are speaking Galileans? 8How is it then that each of us hears them in his own native language? 9Parthians, Medes, and Elamites; residents of Mesopotamia, Judea and Cappadocia, Pontus and Asia,a 10Phrygia and Pamphylia, Egypt and the parts of Libya near Cyrene; visitors from Rome, 11both Jews and converts to Judaism; Cretans and Arabs—we hear them declaring the mighty works of God in our own tongues!”
 
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swordsman1

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So there are 3 options.

1. Either its powered by the Holy Spirit
2. Powered by Satan
3. Or they are faking it.

Or

4. They believe it is the NT gift of tongues, but what they have actually discovered is the natural phenomenon of the human speech organs known to linguists as 'free vocalization' or 'glossolalia'.

Does it match the NT description?
 
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Messerve

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Since many people groups have the Scriptures in their language or there are believers within their group, there is much less need for speaking in tongues today than there was back then.

However, I am curious... Are there some credible accounts of speaking in tongues outside of the Bible like from early Christian history up to maybe the Medieval Era? I would be interested in reading about the context of those situations, to see if it aligns with my opinion.
 
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