I've been following and commenting in a couple of discussions including Did Jesus tell us to follow Moses 10 commandments? and GENTILES OR CHRISTIANS PRACTICING THE SABBATH ? and I struggle to make what I consider valid points of response without writing long essays.
I've blogged on topics such as Hebrew Roots and Messianic Judaism and how they interact with and sometimes oppose traditional Protestant theology and doctrine, so I've got a lot of material to draw from.
For your consideration, I'd like to ask the question that given the New Covenant language we find in Jeremiah 31 and Ezekiel 36 where God specifically makes that covenant with the House of Judah and the House of Israel, how exactly does that covenant apply to the rest of the world?
The mechanism isn't specifically defined in the Bible. Even Jesus's comments in Matthew 26, Luke 22, and Mark 14 about "This cup is the new covenant in my blood" (usually rendered in the Greek as just "covenant") doesn't make the connection. In other words, there's no direct tie in between what we read in Jeremiah and Ezekiel, and Jesus's statement in the Gospels.
I believe there is an answer. It's a long one, longer than I care to post here, but you can read a summary of my thoughts here: Briefly Revisiting Gentiles and the New Covenant.
I'm partially creating this thread to read how others think about all this (no flame wars, please), but mainly to put the idea out there that how the Church has traditionally considered the New Covenant and interpreted the Bible to support their doctrine may be missing a few things.
Let me know what you think. Thanks.
I've blogged on topics such as Hebrew Roots and Messianic Judaism and how they interact with and sometimes oppose traditional Protestant theology and doctrine, so I've got a lot of material to draw from.
For your consideration, I'd like to ask the question that given the New Covenant language we find in Jeremiah 31 and Ezekiel 36 where God specifically makes that covenant with the House of Judah and the House of Israel, how exactly does that covenant apply to the rest of the world?
The mechanism isn't specifically defined in the Bible. Even Jesus's comments in Matthew 26, Luke 22, and Mark 14 about "This cup is the new covenant in my blood" (usually rendered in the Greek as just "covenant") doesn't make the connection. In other words, there's no direct tie in between what we read in Jeremiah and Ezekiel, and Jesus's statement in the Gospels.
I believe there is an answer. It's a long one, longer than I care to post here, but you can read a summary of my thoughts here: Briefly Revisiting Gentiles and the New Covenant.
I'm partially creating this thread to read how others think about all this (no flame wars, please), but mainly to put the idea out there that how the Church has traditionally considered the New Covenant and interpreted the Bible to support their doctrine may be missing a few things.
Let me know what you think. Thanks.