If Jesus is God, why did he forsake himself?

Soyeong

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I was talking religion with a friend of mine who isn't a Christian. We got on the subject of Jesus and God being the same personage. He mentioned Jesus dying on the cross while crying out, "Father, why have you forsaken me?" (The verse he was referring to is Matthew 27:46). Then he asked me: if Jesus is God, why did he forsake himself?

Basically, he was implying that Jesus can't be God because he thinks this verse suggests otherwise. I'm usually a good apologist, but I wasn't really sure how to reply. How would you respond to him?

Jesus was referencing Psalms 22, in which he was not forsaken.
 
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ViaCrucis

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I was talking religion with a friend of mine who isn't a Christian. We got on the subject of Jesus and God being the same personage. He mentioned Jesus dying on the cross while crying out, "Father, why have you forsaken me?" (The verse he was referring to is Matthew 27:46). Then he asked me: if Jesus is God, why did he forsake himself?

Basically, he was implying that Jesus can't be God because he thinks this verse suggests otherwise. I'm usually a good apologist, but I wasn't really sure how to reply. How would you respond to him?

Jesus isn't the Father, He's the Son. We believe the Son is God because He is the same Essence or Being as the Father--that is, He's God. He is eternal, uncreated, He is God of God, as we confess in the Nicene Creed.

So Jesus didn't forsake Himself. But just as important, the Father didn't forsake the Son either. When the Lord cries, "My God, My God, why have you forsaken Me?" it is, first and foremost, a quote from Psalm 22. But even when looking at it from the perspective of human anguish, this is a very human sentiment, the sense that God has turned His gaze away from us. But the Father never turned His gaze away from His Son, the Father never forsook His Son, and indeed, God never forsakes us, He has never turned His gaze away from us--and it is precisely here in the suffering of Christ that we can see that God does not turn away from us, but comes to us, to be with us in our suffering and our despair. In Christ God has made His stand with the lowly, the reject, the abandoned of the world.

-CryptoLutheran
 
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I was talking religion with a friend of mine who isn't a Christian. We got on the subject of Jesus and God being the same personage. He mentioned Jesus dying on the cross while crying out, "Father, why have you forsaken me?" (The verse he was referring to is Matthew 27:46). Then he asked me: if Jesus is God, why did he forsake himself?

Basically, he was implying that Jesus can't be God because he thinks this verse suggests otherwise. I'm usually a good apologist, but I wasn't really sure how to reply. How would you respond to him?

Why did Jesus say "My God, my God, why has thou forsaken me?"

Well, for one, there is a big difference between making an assertion and asking a question. Secondly, Jesus was referencing Scripture as a fulfillment of prophecy (Psalms 22:1). Thirdly, Jesus also said these words as if it was you and me in His place saying these words. For He was taking on our sins and our punishment.

In fact, when look at Psalms 22, we can see that the response to the first verse where the psalmist cries out the prophetic words, "Why have you forsaken me?" there is an answer in verse 24. Here's the answer to the question of Jesus, the question of the psalmist and the question of every person who has ever felt abandoned by the Father: For he (God the Father) has not despised or disdained the suffering of the afflicted one; he has not hidden his face from him but has listened to his cry for help.

God the Father forsaking His own Son? Impossible! God the Father was "in Christ, reconciling the world to Himself" (2 Corinthians 5:19)! It is possible Jesus may have felt a separation from the Father at the time (But Jesus knew better because of the Scriptures). It seemed like the Father had forsaken Him, but He hadn't! Nor will He ever forsake you (if you have a broken heart before Him).

In short, I would say to your friend that Jesus was speaking these words as if it was me or you while the Judgment of sin was being laid upon Him while He was upon the cross before He died and paid the penalty for us. For Jesus needed to be our substitute to pay the penalty for our sin.


Source Used:
Dr. Steve McVey: Did The Father Forsake Jesus On the Cross? No!
(Not all views or beliefs by this author or website may reflect my views or beliefs; I am merely agreeing with the truth in the portion of the article I quoted here).
 
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FireDragon76

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The enigmatic "Eli, Eli, lema sabachthani?", that's a quote from Psalm 22. It's a prayer and his enemies understood what it meant. "The rest said, Let be, let us see whether Elias will come to save him." (Matt. 27:49). It's a prayer for deliverance.

Dogs surround me,
a pack of villains encircles me;
they pierce my hands and my feet.

All my bones are on display;
people stare and gloat over me.

They divide my clothes among them
and cast lots for my garment.

But you, Lord, do not be far from me.
You are my strength; come quickly to help me. (Psalm 22:16-19)​

He was also fulfilling prophecy.

Grace and peace,
Mark

My pastor has been preaching on the whole "separation from God" thing, but I think given the wider context of the psalm, Jesus' words are not necessarily words of despair.

Traditionally Lutherans did not talk about Jesus being "separated from God" on the cross. We talked about Jesus bearing the wrath of God against sin.
 
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mark kennedy

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My pastor has been preaching on the whole "separation from God" thing, but I think given the wider context of the psalm, Jesus' words are not necessarily words of despair.

Traditionally Lutherans did not talk about Jesus being "separated from God" on the cross. We talked about Jesus bearing the wrath of God against sin.
I think I've heard a couple of sermons like that, one said it was like the Father put his hand over Jesus on the cross. I don't get that from Psalm 22, it reads like a prayer of deliverance and the prayer was answered, just not like everyone thought it would be.

Grace and peace,
Mark
 
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Almost there

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I see Jesus as the fleshly manifestation of God. The bible calls Him fully God and fully Man. His flesh (man) had a brain and all that comes with a human brain. But it was also directly connected to the spirit of God in ways we cannot imagine.

i.e. It is possible that when he said that, all that was left on that cross was the man and his soul. The spirit of God had left the flesh - albeit temporarily.
 
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GenemZ

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I was talking religion with a friend of mine who isn't a Christian. We got on the subject of Jesus and God being the same personage. He mentioned Jesus dying on the cross while crying out, "Father, why have you forsaken me?" (The verse he was referring to is Matthew 27:46). Then he asked me: if Jesus is God, why did he forsake himself?

Basically, he was implying that Jesus can't be God because he thinks this verse suggests otherwise. I'm usually a good apologist, but I wasn't really sure how to reply. How would you respond to him?

Jesus is both fully man, and fully God. Whom did God forsake on the Cross as he bore our sins in his body? He could not forsake Himself......that being, God. But, His humanity is not God. And, He was dying for the sins of human beings only. His humanity was forsaken. His Deity remained in Him, but was grieved and withdrawn..... just like the Holy Spirit does with us when we sin.

Only Jesus the man was forsaken. And, since He himself never sinned? Being forsaken could only last as long as the supply of our sins were being poured onto him. Once the last sin of mankind was placed on him and He was being forced to be dead to God (forsaken).... There was no more sins to bear. Therefore, He was no longer to be forsaken. That is when He knew it was finished and declared .."Tetelestai" - "IT IS FINISHED!" For he had bore all the sins of men at that point and there were no more to bear.

Jesus was forsaken in our place as a substitute for us. For He was the only one who could bear them and yet be restored to God. For,. if we had to bear the penalty for "being a sinner?" We could never return to God having a sin nature. Jesus having no sin was able to bear the sins of others, but afterwards return to fellowship with the Father because He himself had no sin nature. That was the price the Lord was willing to pay because God knew in order to get Satan and his angels to judge themselves, that... God would have to allow for the fall of man. Men who would later be born with sin natures that they made no choice in having. So, God assumed responsibility that man not be forsaken automatically for being sinners.


I can explain this.... if you want.
 
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Open Heart

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I was talking religion with a friend of mine who isn't a Christian. We got on the subject of Jesus and God being the same personage. He mentioned Jesus dying on the cross while crying out, "Father, why have you forsaken me?" (The verse he was referring to is Matthew 27:46). Then he asked me: if Jesus is God, why did he forsake himself?

Basically, he was implying that Jesus can't be God because he thinks this verse suggests otherwise. I'm usually a good apologist, but I wasn't really sure how to reply. How would you respond to him?
This is a Trinitarian question. God the son is speaking to God the Father One God, three persons. It's difficult to understand. Think of it like the three dimensions of space.

IMHO, Jesus is speaking his feelings, not the reality. I don't think the Father actually abandons Jesus.
 
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