FreeGrace2
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Well, that proved nothing. Yes, there are verses that say that Christ died for the church, etc. But NONE of those verses that you "muster" state it in any exclusionary terms, such as "only" or "just". That's what you keep missing.I'll prove my point
"No matter how many verses OT or NT we muster to show that atonement was limited, for God's chosen people, for the elect, those who have a presupposition that requires unlimited atonement, will constantly make world = every single person who ever lived; world does mean everyone; everyone = all; all = all; you don't have a single verse, etcetera.
And regarding this so-called "presupposition that requires unlimited atonement", that's kind of funny. It is the reformed who have been bitten with that malady, except your malady requires limited atonement, to be consistent and logical from points 1 and 2 of TULIP.
So, when you come to Heb 2:9, you just can't imagine that the writer really meant everyone, though the majority of Greek scholars involved in English translations certainly did. So the bias card gets played by you.
This is absolutely true, as demonstrated time and time again on this forum. But the presuppositional bias has been demonstrated by the reformed.I cannot see any way through. When there is a presuppositional bias towards a certain theology, it is very difficult to move, even when evidence to the contrary is presented. This is what you and I have found in this discussion with Arminians, and others sympathetic to synergistic unlimited atonement advocates.
I'll even give you an excellent example. One of the reformed, when dealing with Heb 2:9, said that when one reads 2:9, the "obvious question" (my quotes) is "all of which group?". That question is a clear demonstration of BIAS against unlimited atonement. Why would anyone, other than a Calvinsit, even consider that question? No one would. Only a Calvinist, who is biased AGAINST unlimited atonement, because of their presuppositions.
Jesus' claim that He "lay down My life for THE sheep" is another statement of unlimited atonement, because in the context of John 10, He refers to the unbelieving Jews as not "MY sheep". He didn't say they weren't sheep, but not His sheep. So the phrase "the sheep" is a reference to all of mankind. Those who believe in Him He calls "My sheep". Those who don't believe in Him are not "My sheep". Simple as that.I find that there is a solid rock theological barrier against "I am the good shepherd, and I know My own and My own know Me, even as the Father knows Me and I know the Father; and I lay down My life for the sheep." (John 10:14, 15 NASB).
And the very next verse (v.45) tells us who is drawn; those who have listened and learned from the Father.Or "No one can come to Me unless the Father who sent Me draws him; and I will raise him up on the last day." (John 6:44 NASB)
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