FreeGrace2
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- Nov 15, 2012
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What is the proof that it wasn't written to all believers? And what "internal evidence" contradicts that it was? He specifically noted that he was writing to "children, young men, and fathers" in 2:12-14.Where did I say that the church was not fully established? Just because it was fully established does NOT imply that John's epistle was written to all believers. It was not written to all believers. The internal evidence contradicts the supposition that it was written to all believers.
How many times have you counted the words "Jew/s" or "Gentile/s" in 1 Jn?
You have no proof of that claim at all. Though Jesus' ministry began with Jews, He never avoided Gentiles.John's audience had heard the word "from the beginning" (2:24). The Gentiles clearly did not hear the word "from the beginning."
As I do yours.I have told you that I have earned degrees from your school of thought and of mine. I totally reject your school of thought.
Pink?? I reject your source! He's another 5 pointer. Do you have any idea when Galatians was written? Between 49-55 AD, WAY before 1 Jn.But here is the death blow to your theory. A.W. Pink correctly points out John was an apostle to the circumcision:
I rest my case!!
Unless you can find ANY reference to Jews and Gentiles in 1 Jn you have NO case to rest.
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