I am confused about something...

[Jaxxi]

The Bible refers to the " son of man" in a rather negative way until Ezekial 2:1 and we see "Son of man" for the first time. What is the reason for this? Because after we see " Son of man" it will make references with lower and uppercase S's and I am wondering who are they talking about? Is Jesus not the Son of man?

Put not your trust in princes, nor in the son of man, in whom there is no help Psalm 146:3

And he said unto me, Son of man, stand upon thy feet, and I will speak unto thee.
Ezekial 2:1

 

[NerdGirl]

The Bible refers to the " son of man" in a rather negative way until Ezekial 2:1 and we see "Son of man" for the first time. What is the reason for this? Because after we see " Son of man" it will make references with lower and uppercase S's and I am wondering who are they talking about? Is Jesus not the Son of man?

Put not your trust in princes, nor in the son of man, in whom there is no help Psalm 146:3

And he said unto me, Son of man, stand upon thy feet, and I will speak unto thee.
Ezekial 2:1

Lower case "son of man" is not referring to Jesus, but simply men. Sons of men. Ordinary people.

 

[Gifts From Above]

The Bible refers to the " son of man" in a rather negative way until Ezekial 2:1 and we see "Son of man" for the first time. What is the reason for this? Because after we see " Son of man" it will make references with lower and uppercase S's and I am wondering who are they talking about? Is Jesus not the Son of man?

Put not your trust in princes, nor in the son of man, in whom there is no help Psalm 146:3

And he said unto me, Son of man, stand upon thy feet, and I will speak unto thee.
Ezekial 2:1

Neither of those cases are referring to Jesus. The Ezekiel reference is referring to Ezekiel himself. The reference in Psalms is instructing us not to put our trust in man. Both of these verses can be read in their common sense context and are not references to Christ.

 

[WebersHome]

.
The term "the son of man" normally refers to any one of Adam's progeny regardless of gender seeing as how Gen 1:27 calls both the male and the female "man" in the beginning.

But now in Jesus' case, the son of man refers to a special individual spoken of at Gen 3:15 as the one destined to ruin the Serpent.

• Heb 2:14 . . Forasmuch then as the children are partakers of flesh and blood, he also himself likewise took part of the same; that through death he might destroy him that had the power of death, that is, the Devil.

Jesus is also the individual destined to take the reins of world power.

• Dan 7:13-14 . . In my vision at night I looked, and there before me was one like a son of man, coming with the clouds of heaven. He approached the Ancient of Days and was led into his presence.

. . . He was given authority, glory and sovereign power; all peoples, nations and men of every language worshiped him. His dominion is an everlasting dominion that will not pass away, and his kingdom is one that will never be destroyed.
_

 

[1213]

The Bible refers to the " son of man" in a rather negative way until Ezekial 2:1 and we see "Son of man" for the first time. What is the reason for this? Because after we see " Son of man" it will make references with lower and uppercase S's and I am wondering who are they talking about? Is Jesus not the Son of man?...

I think it is not a contradiction. Jesus says that he could do nothing without God. So, also in his case, it is the God that we should trust.

…"Most assuredly, I tell you, the Son can do nothing of himself, but what he sees the Father doing. For whatever things he does, these the Son also does likewise… … I can of myself do nothing. As I hear, I judge, and my judgment is righteous; because I don't seek my own will, but the will of my Father who sent me.
John 5:19, 30

…I do nothing of myself; but as my Father hath taught me, I speak these things.
John 8:28

….The words that I tell you, I speak not from myself; but the Father who lives in me does his works..
John 14:10

"My teaching is not mine, but his who sent me. If anyone desires to do his will, he will know about the teaching, whether it is from God, or if I am speaking from myself.
John 7:16-17

 

[eleos1954]

The Bible refers to the " son of man" in a rather negative way until Ezekial 2:1 and we see "Son of man" for the first time. What is the reason for this? Because after we see " Son of man" it will make references with lower and uppercase S's and I am wondering who are they talking about? Is Jesus not the Son of man?

Put not your trust in princes, nor in the son of man, in whom there is no help Psalm 146:3

And he said unto me, Son of man, stand upon thy feet, and I will speak unto thee.
Ezekial 2:1

The passage in it's context is referring to Ezekiel as son of man and not Jesus. Need to always read more than one verse in order to get the context of what is being talked about.

Jesus does refer to himself as the Son of man elsewhere in scripture .... it was His way for people to more easily relate to Him and see His human side .... ie He was 100% God and 100% man. He was both the son of man and the Son of God.