I am a proud King James Version Bible Belt Baptist

TCassidy

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Hi and welcome here.
Thank you. I am not really new to the Christian Forums group. I am one of the most senior Administrators at the sister forum, The Baptist Board, where I have been an Admin for 18 years. :)
 
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TCassidy

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Blessings of course.

Might I get your opinion on the KJV of Genesis 22:1 vs James 1:13?
Doesn't verse 14 explain it? "But each one is tempted when he is drawn away by his own lust, and enticed."

And verse 13 seems pretty clear too. "Let no man say when he is tempted, “I am tempted by God,” for God can’t be tempted by evil, and he himself tempts no one (by evil)."

:)
 
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98cwitr

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Doesn't verse 14 explain it? "But each one is tempted when he is drawn away by his own lust, and enticed."

And verse 13 seems pretty clear too. "Let no man say when he is tempted, “I am tempted by God,” for God can’t be tempted by evil, and he himself tempts no one (by evil)."

:)

But the KJV literally says that God tempted Abraham. How do you personally reconcile that to yourself?
 
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98cwitr

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God does not tempt(test) ppl with evil.

True, but syntax in the two verses suggests otherwise. You're adding words to James 1:13. I'm glad NIV uses the word "tested," as that is more intellectually accurate.
 
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JackRT

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God does not tempt(test) ppl with evil.

Before the Babylonian Exile the Jews attributed both good and evil to YHWH. The Zoroastrians believed in both a god of good (Ahura-Mazda) and a god of evil (Ahrulman) engaged in a cosmic struggle. The Jews picked up and ran with this idea. It was easy to cast YHWH in the role of the God of good. They took also the angel ha'shaitan (Satan) in the book of Job and recast that character as Satan the near divine force of evil. Most Christians continue in this belief to the present day. Given the proximity of Babylon to Israel, it is not hard to see the connection between Zoroastrianism and Judaism continuing at some level. Even at the time of Jesus there were still a million or more Jews living in the Babylon area.
 
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TCassidy

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But the KJV literally says that God tempted Abraham. How do you personally reconcile that to yourself?
Context. Abraham was not tempted by God to do evil, he was tested regarding his faith. πειραζομενος means "to test." The English word "temp" comes from the Middle English, via Old French "tempter" - "to test," from Latin temptare, "to test, "try."

Just another example of a word that has changed meaning over the past 400 years.
 
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twin1954

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Christ Jesus is God and He was tempted in the wilderness.

That is not to say that God tempts men with evil for certainly He does not but Satan is God's devil and can do no more than God allows him. Evil is not a temptation to man but a matter of the heart. Evil is the default desire of man and until, by the Spirit through the preaching of the Gospel, God does something in him and for him he cannot desire anything else. You must be born again from above to even see, desire, the kingdom of God.
 
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TCassidy

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Bump. Still waiting to hear from the KJVO people.

Now, as to those who claim allegiance to the illogical and unscriptural position known as KJVO. Just a few questions.

#1. Which KJV is the preserved word of God in English? The 1611 1st edition 1st printing or 1611 1st edition 2nd printing (they are different)? The 1613 edition? The 1629 edition? The 1638 edition? The 1762 edition? The 1769 edition? The 1873 edition? All are different, and as the KJVO mantra goes, "Things that are different are not the same."

#2. There are over 1100 differences between the KJV of 1611 and the 1769 edition that most people who use a KJV use today. Even the KJVO apologist, D.A. Waite, says there are 136 "changes of substance" which change the meaning of the text. So, if the current 1769 KJV is the "preserved word of God in English" doesn't that mean the 1611 is not the "preserved word of God in English?"

#3. What is the basis for your assertion that the KJV is the ONLY (the "O" in KJVO) preserved word of God in English?

Hopefully we will be able to have an honest and mature discussion on English bible translations and how best to evaluate their relative merits, or lack thereof. :)
 
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Drought of the Heart

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I grew up with KJV and the Lord has me back in it. It is the only version no copyrights rules. How scary we live in a world having copyrights for sharing the Word of God. It also took at least 66 Scholars to have to agree and I have found one word changed , changes the whole meaning. satan was busy in the Garden and he is in overtime now. That is why Paul and Timothy warned of anything outside Scriptures and strange doctrines. I love the NKJV as well but always make sure it is worded correctly. Thanks for Thread
 
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Drought of the Heart

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Forgot about the baptist thing. All denominations are man made and we should all be able to stand hear the word and agree as they did in Acts...I was Baptized in a Baptist church but my mom had a car accident when I was young and I sat in most every denomination. There is not perfect church till Heaven and there all will be gathered that God called...
 
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dysert

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I grew up with KJV and the Lord has me back in it. It is the only version no copyrights rules. How scary we live in a world having copyrights for sharing the Word of God. It also took at least 66 Scholars to have to agree and I have found one word changed , changes the whole meaning. satan was busy in the Garden and he is in overtime now. That is why Paul and Timothy warned of anything outside Scriptures and strange doctrines. I love the NKJV as well but always make sure it is worded correctly. Thanks for Thread
Hope no one minds my butting in. Your post, though, doesn't really address any of TCassidy's questions.
 
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TCassidy

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It is the only version no copyrights rules.
Actually, the truth is that the KJV is now and always has been under copyright in the United Kingdom. At the time it was first published in 1611 a "Crown Patent in Perpetuity" was issued in the name of the Crown and all printing of the KJV is limited to those institutions holding a Crown License (the largest are the universities of Oxford and Cambridge and thus the Oxford and Cambridge editions of the KJV).

How scary we live in a world having copyrights for sharing the Word of God.
I am not at all scared or put off by the fact the KJV is copyrighted. It prevents unauthorized corruption of the text.

It also took at least 66 Scholars to have to agree
There were six groups, or committees, meeting in the cities of Cambridge, Westminster, and Oxford. These six committees were made up of fifty-seven men altogether with only 47 of them still alive in 1611.

And when the committees failed to come to an agreement regarding how a passage should be translated it was referred to a final revision committee made up of two men from each of the six committees. If they failed to come to a decision, the Archbishop of Canterbury, Richard Bancroft, who was the "chief overseer" of the project, had the authority to supply the final reading, which he did so several times.

He died in 1610 and the committees, out of respect for the venerated old man, decided to leave his unilateral changes in place in the final publication, first edition, first printing of 1611.

I have found one word changed
I have found over 1000 with around 200 of them significant enough to change the meaning of the passage.

I love the NKJV as well but always make sure it is worded correctly.
What criteria do you use to determine if the wording is correct?
 
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Drought of the Heart

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Actually, the truth is that the KJV is now and always has been under copyright in the United Kingdom. At the time it was first published in 1611 a "Crown Patent in Perpetuity" was issued in the name of the Crown and all printing of the KJV is limited to those institutions holding a Crown License (the largest are the universities of Oxford and Cambridge and thus the Oxford and Cambridge editions of the KJV).

I am not at all scared or put off by the fact the KJV is copyrighted. It prevents unauthorized corruption of the text.

There were six groups, or committees, meeting in the cities of Cambridge, Westminster, and Oxford. These six committees were made up of fifty-seven men altogether with only 47 of them still alive in 1611.

And when the committees failed to come to an agreement regarding how a passage should be translated it was referred to a final revision committee made up of two men from each of the six committees. If they failed to come to a decision, the Archbishop of Canterbury, Richard Bancroft, who was the "chief overseer" of the project, had the authority to supply the final reading, which he did so several times.

He died in 1610 and the committees, out of respect for the venerated old man, decided to leave his unilateral changes in place in the final publication, first edition, first printing of 1611.

I have found over 1000 with around 200 of them significant enough to change the meaning of the passage.

What criteria do you use to determine if the wording is correct?



As I said the Lord brought me up in that version and has me 5 decades later in it. I pray before I open the Bible for God to show me what He wants and trust in Him to be my teacher. So to answer your question I pray and ask God , then read KJV and listen while driving NKJV. If something seems different I open KJV on my knees with prayer...Man has listened to man so long we have forgot how to listen to God...
 
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Drought of the Heart

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TCassidy

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As I said the Lord brought me up in that version and has me 5 decades later in it. I pray before I open the Bible for God to show me what He wants and trust in Him to be my teacher. So to answer your question I pray and ask God , then read KJV and listen while driving NKJV. If something seems different I open KJV on my knees with prayer...Man has listened to man so long we have forgot how to listen to God...
So, in other words, you are saying you have no empirical evidence that the KJV is the base line word of God?

What do you do when the KJV 1769 (which you probably use) disagrees with the KJV 1611? Which one is the base line? And if it is the 1769, are you saying there were no accurate bibles prior to 1769?

If some other Christian said the same thing about the NIV would you say "Well then, it must be true?"

And I still have not see any answers to my questions. Would you like me to repeat them?
 
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Drought of the Heart

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So, in other words, you are saying you have no empirical evidence that the KJV is the base line word of God?

What do you do when the KJV 1769 (which you probably use) disagrees with the KJV 1611? Which one is the base line? And if it is the 1769, are you saying there were no accurate bibles prior to 1769?

If some other Christian said the same thing about the NIV would you say "Well then, it must be true?"

And I still have not see any answers to my questions. Would you like me to repeat them?


What Bible do you read and why ???
 
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