HappyHope
Well-Known Member
- Jul 22, 2019
- 643
- 523
- Country
- United States
- Faith
- Christian
- Marital Status
- Married
I didn't read the other posts yet. So I'm sorry if I am dropping this in the middle of a conversation.I think that the question is fairly self-evident...
Does anyone have any answers to this (please, no out-right anti-Catholicism and the like, as I'm looking to see how the change occurred and not just to unleash a load of "POPERY!!!!!!" type comments)?
I had to study church history once upon a time. This is partly from my studies and partly conjecture. So, Catholicism was once anti-capitalism. This is one of the reasons the Kingdom of Spain lost its world power status back in the day and the British Empire prospered. Power shifted west. England and heavily westernized colonies in America embraced capitalism and therefore prosperity.
I don't remember why ancient Catholicism was against capitalism- they linked it with being against the Bible somehow. So traditionally Catholic/Spanish influenced regions suffered with a lack of capitalism making/keeping them poor. The poor turn to social justice. So some Catholics regions of the world tend to be associated with social justice. I had to write a paper on liberation theology in South America once. The research was very interesting. Many still do not associate prosperity with capitalism, which isn't perfect but it is not against the Bible.
Upvote
0