I think that the question is fairly self-evident...
Does anyone have any answers to this (please, no out-right anti-Catholicism and the like, as I'm looking to see how the change occurred and not just to unleash a load of "POPERY!!!!!!" type comments)?
Good question.
Step 1. Can we allow ourselves to discuss "historic fact" even to this day? To talk about what "exists" as historic fact? If not then the entire thread is something we choose not to discuss... still.
Step 2. What were the arguments, rationale, logic, reason for all that intolerance of dissenting views in the dark ages? Was it the Bible? was it tradition? was it merely abuse of power? superstition? What was it? just historically speaking, facts, talking just about "what existed".
Step 3. Is there in history some sort of "declaration" that all that was wrong... naming names... identifying infallible documents that we now say were dead wrong to say what they said?
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When the "Holy Roman Empire" existed - dominated by the Papacy - physical persecution of dissent was unstoppable. But then through a lot of sacrifice the Protestant Reformation removed outright direct control of civil governments from the direct control of the Papacy.
Still there exists today various forms of persecution of non-Catholic groups in almost all-Catholic countries in S. America and elsewhere.
So then how does the Catholic church hold influence in countries where she does not have direct control - is the real question here.
Notice that immigration problems are almost never "from Protestant nations to Catholic ones". The Catholic church is always trying to get protestant nations to let Catholics from Catholic nations migrate in even outside the legal immigration mechanism. And hmmm... "why is that"??? Why wold the Catholic church want "more Catholics" to live in Protestant nations?
Looks like a very liberal policy on the surface doesn't it?
Exactly how long ago "Was it" That the Catholic Church stood up and said that "the extermination of heretics" clause in Lateran IV's canon law "was not only not infallible.... but was a sin... was dead wrong"?? I am guessing from your thread that you suppose such a thing has already happened.
In the world which we all "imagine to ourselves" to live in -- ALL GROUPS are saying "
The dark ages had a lot of big mistakes in it -- lets move past that and agree to never make such horrendous mistakes again in the name of religion".. but are they "all" willing to say that? in the 1990's?, 2000's?, 2010's? If not - who is still out there claiming that calls to "exterminate" the other guys in the dark ages - is still to be considered "infallibly correct"??
Some folks will say "well lets forget about the century upon century of dark ages persecution in the Holy Roman Empire and just talk about persecution of Protestants in England...followed by persecution of Catholics in England then ... for however many decades that went on". Ok ...let's do. Is there anything from the Anglican church today claiming that persecution of Catholics was ever "infallibly correct" to do? Is there any "push back" from the Anglican church today when it comes to naming historic incidents where England persecuted Christians? Do they complain about people discussing that at all?