How easy is the KJV to understand?

In correct KJV English...

  • God created Eve for Adam as a help meet.

    Votes: 8 66.7%
  • God created Eve for Adam as a meet help.

    Votes: 3 25.0%
  • The "quick and the dead" are the "speedy and the dead."

    Votes: 0 0.0%
  • The "quick and the dead" are the "alive and the dead."

    Votes: 12 100.0%
  • The "quick and the dead" are the "intelligent and the dead."

    Votes: 0 0.0%
  • In Romans 1:13, "let hitherto" means "prevented hitherto."

    Votes: 4 33.3%
  • In Romans 1:13, "let hitherto" means "forbidden hitherto."

    Votes: 0 0.0%
  • In Romans 1:13, "let hitherto" means "allowed hitherto."

    Votes: 8 66.7%
  • In 1 Corinthians 10:25, all kinds of food are sold in a shambles.

    Votes: 6 50.0%
  • In 1 Corinthians 10:25, only meat is sold in a shambles.

    Votes: 5 41.7%

  • Total voters
    12

ViaCrucis

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And account that the longsuffering of our Lord is salvation; even as our beloved brother Paul also according to the wisdom given unto him hath written unto you; As also in all his epistles, speaking in them of these things; in which are some things hard to be understood, which they that are unlearned and unstable wrest, as they do also the other scriptures, unto their own destruction." (2 Peter 3:15-16).

Peter is calling Paul's words here as Scripture. For Peter calls Paul's words as being hard to undertand, and that there are those who are unlearned and unstable do wrest (twist) his words as they do other Scriptures to their own destruction.

As for your statement that Romans 1:1 is not Scripture:

This is really odd. What indication in Scripture brings you to this conclusion?
When does Holy Scripture start officially and when does it end in the Bible?
How can you tell? It sounds confusing.

Please go and actually read what I said. Because it's very obvious that you didn't, because literally nothing you're saying here corresponds with what I wrote above.

I used to believe that we had to obey both the Old and the New commands. But this is physically impossible. It is physically impossible to obey both the Old Law, and the New Law. First, the Old Law was fuilfilled upon the cross. The Old Law calls us to partake in animal sacrifices and the Aaronic priesthood. It's why the temple veil was torn. The old priesthood ended. Jesus is now our sacrifice and heavenly high priest. The Old Law required one to stone others if they broke the Law. Jesus taught us to forgive others and to let vengeance belong to God now. Circumcision is also no longer required like it was in the Old Covenant, either.

I didn't say we had to obey all the commandments in the Old Testament


Not at all. I gave logical reasons to support my points.

Except you didn't actually provide any counter-statements to the factual information I presented.

I don't care about how "logical" your disagreement that doulos means "slave"--the point you should be addressing is that doulos means slave. That's what the word means, that is what Scripture says. If you disagree, then present something. Present linguistic reasons, grammatical reasons, explain how the word is typically used in the ancient world by speakers of Koine. Do your homework, learn, study, and then form a coherent argument based on factual information that you can actually substantiate with more than just your feelings and mere opinion.

-CryptoLutheran
 
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Please go and actually read what I said. Because it's very obvious that you didn't, because literally nothing you're saying here corresponds with what I wrote above.

You said, I quote:

“I didn't choose Romans 1:1 for any special reason, it's totally random; the point is that these are actually Paul's words. God didn't write them, Paul did.” Quote by: ViaCrucis.

This means Paul's words in Romans 1:1 are not Scripture according to you.

You also stated I quote:

For this reason the Scriptures are said to be divinely inspired, authoritative, and so the Church calls them God's word.” Quote by: ViaCrucis.

You implied by this statement that the church long after Paul was gone regarded Paul's writings as Scripture. But I shared a passage with you (i.e. 2 Peter 3:15-16) that shows that Peter regarded Paul's writings as Scripture. Also, Peter did not specify which parts of Paul's writings were inspired Scripture and which parts were not inspired Scripture as you have done. Peter just stated that Paul's words that were written down (which are hard to understand) is Scripture because some people during his time had twisted Paul's written words as they do other Scriptures. You said that Romans 1:1 (which is written by Paul) is not Scripture. Yet, this was written by Paul. Peter never said that some of Paul's written words were not Scripture.

You said:
I didn't say we had to obey all the commandments in the Old Testament

You said, I quote:

“the Holy Spirit is God's word; through these Christ Himself speaks to us His loving word of grace and salvation by His Gospel, and also gives us the corrective word of the Law to chastise us and bring us to repentance.” Quote by: ViaCrucis.

You later said you referred to Law in grace in this post. So I asked you which law is this referring to.

You said “yes” in that this is in reference to the 613 Laws of Moses, and the hundreds of the New Testament Laws. So this means we have to obey all of the commandments in the Old Testament (according to your previous response). But seeing you clarified that this was not the case, then you are not saying “yes” to what I stated before in that we have to obey the 613 laws of Moses. So you believe we have to obey some of the Law of Moses then. This is the impression I am getting. However, Scripture says we are not under the Law (Romans 6:14). Scripture says you cannot be justified by the Law of Moses.

“And by him all that believe are justified from all things, from which ye could not be justified by the law of Moses.” (Acts of the Apostles 13:39).

So again, what you stated in that we have to obey some of the Law of Moses is not biblical thinking. The Law of Moses was fulfilled upon the cross. Christ nailed to the cross those ordinances that were against us (Colossians 2:14). This would be things like the Saturday Sabbath, dietary laws, and the ritual observances under the OT (See: Colossians 2:16). Hebrews 7:12 says the Law has changed. For a certain sect of Jews had tried to influence Gentile Christians in that they must be circumcised and keep the Law of Moses. But this was not the case (See: Acts of the Apostles 15:1, Acts of the Apostles 15:5, and Acts of the Apostles 15:24). It's why the temple veil was torn from top to bottom. The laws on the priesthood had ended. The Law of Moses had ended upon the cross. We are under a New Covenant with New Commands that are attached with that Covenant. We are no longer Old Covenant believers. The Old Covenant was given to Israel and not the church. So there is no such thing as breaking the Law of Moses today. If such were the case, then we should stone people for breaking the Law of Moses. So the Law of Moses is not applicable. Yes, certain laws have repeated into the New Covenant like moral laws (i.e. such as do not murder, do not steal, do not covet, etc.), but we are New Covenant believers and we look to Jesus and His followers primarily to obey God and we do not seek to be justified by the Law of Moses.

For if we seek to be justified by the law; we are fallen from grace according to Paul (See: Galatians 5:4). This is in reference to the Old Testament Law of Moses and not the commands of Jesus. For Paul says in context: “Behold, I Paul say unto you, that if ye be circumcised, Christ shall profit you nothing.” (Galatians 5:2). Circumcision was a part of the Old Testament that was first given to Abraham and then became also incorporated into the Law of Moses.

You said:
Except you didn't actually provide any counter-statements to the factual information I presented.

I don't care about how "logical" your disagreement that doulos means "slave"--the point you should be addressing is that doulos means slave. That's what the word means, that is what Scripture says. If you disagree, then present something. Present linguistic reasons, grammatical reasons, explain how the word is typically used in the ancient world by speakers of Koine. Do your homework, learn, study, and then form a coherent argument based on factual information that you can actually substantiate with more than just your feelings and mere opinion.

-CryptoLutheran

The problem is that Jesus said beware of the Scribes. Scribes are those who tran-scribe the Law or the Scriptures. Who are the Scribes today? It is the person who transcribes the Scriptures today. It would be people who think they are scholars or experts in translating God's Word. Jesus told us to beware of them and not to implictly trust them. So I do not agree with recent scholars or scribes in their interpretation on what they think the Greek means in Scripture. Many times they change what the English says in my Bible. Jesus chose simple men like fisherman and not scribes or scholars as His team of disciples. So if God chooses simple men, then we must also be simple when reading the Bible, as well. For James says God has chosen the poor of this world to be rich in faith. Is the poor guy the one who is the scholar and has access to tons of manuscripts and or has the money for the schooling to study Biblical Greek? No. So things are not as you say, friend. I just simply read my Bible in the English and believe it. I am not looking to change what it says because I don't like what it says plainly. The English in our Bible should not conflict with the Greek because that is what it is translated from. To say that there are errors in God's Word and we must find them and figure out what is true or not true is not our job. If there is one error in the Bible, then it is all false. The Bible is either all true, or it is all false. We cannot cherry pick what parts of the Bible are true or not. There are no errors in the Bible. God's Word is perfect; Just as God is perfect. For there are no errors in the Bible because it comes from God; And everything God does is perfect.
 
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ViaCrucis

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You said, I quote:

“I didn't choose Romans 1:1 for any special reason, it's totally random; the point is that these are actually Paul's words. God didn't write them, Paul did.” Quote by: ViaCrucis.

This means Paul's words in Romans 1:1 are not Scripture according to you.

False. They are Scripture, as I very clearly said.

You also stated I quote:

For this reason the Scriptures are said to be divinely inspired, authoritative, and so the Church calls them God's word.” Quote by: ViaCrucis.

You implied by this statement that the church long after Paul was gone regarded Paul's writings as Scripture. But I shared a passage with you (i.e. 2 Peter 3:15-16) that shows that Peter regarded Paul's writings as Scripture. Also, Peter did not specify which parts of Paul's writings were inspired Scripture and which parts were not inspired Scripture as you have done. Peter just stated that Paul's words that were written down (which are hard to understand) is Scripture because some people during his time had twisted Paul's written words as they do other Scriptures.

My point is that Paul didn't just have an innate knowledge that what he wrote would be Scripture. That was something that happened after--by the consensus and agreement of the Church.

You said that Romans 1:1 (which is written by Paul) is not Scripture. Yet, this was written by Paul. Peter never said that some of Paul's written words were not Scripture.

I said Paul's letters are Scripture. So no, I never said they weren't. I said the opposite of what you are telling me I said.

You said, I quote:

“the Holy Spirit is God's word; through these Christ Himself speaks to us His loving word of grace and salvation by His Gospel, and also gives us the corrective word of the Law to chastise us and bring us to repentance.” Quote by: ViaCrucis.

You later said you referred to Law in grace in this post. So I asked you which law is this referring to.

"the corrective word of the Law" is what I said. By which I mean God's commandments. That includes the commandments God gave exclusively to the Jews under the covenant established with them on Mt. Sinai.

There is Law--what God commands.
There is Gospel--what God promises and gives.

That's why I said that Christ Himself speaks His loving word of grace and salvation by His Gospel, and also gives us the corrective word of the Law; in Scripture we encounter both Law and Gospel

You said “yes” in that this is in reference to the 613 Laws of Moses, and the hundreds of the New Testament Laws. So this means we have to obey all of the commandments in the Old Testament (according to your previous response).

No. It means that the word "Law" is everything God has commanded. Not just the commandments given uniquely to the Jews as part of their covenant with God, nor just the commandments which are given in the New Testament. It means Law is everything God commands.

But seeing you clarified that this was not the case, then you are not saying “yes” to what I stated before in that we have to obey the 613 laws of Moses. So you believe we have to obey some of the Law of Moses then. This is the impression I am getting. However, Scripture says we are not under the Law (Romans 6:14). Scripture says you cannot be justified by the Law of Moses.

We cannot be justified by the Law period. Not just the commandments given through Moses to the Jews, but all that God commands. One cannot be righteous or made just by obedience to commandments. Only the Gospel can justify, and it does so because here is the grace of God, by which we have received the imputed righteousness of Jesus Christ, by grace alone, through faith. And therefore we are justified by grace alone through faith. Not by works.

“And by him all that believe are justified from all things, from which ye could not be justified by the law of Moses.” (Acts of the Apostles 13:39).

So again, what you stated in that we have to obey some of the Law of Moses is not biblical thinking. The Law of Moses was fulfilled upon the cross. Christ nailed to the cross those ordinances that were against us (Colossians 2:14). This would be things like the Saturday Sabbath, dietary laws, and the ritual observances under the OT (See: Colossians 2:16). Hebrews 7:12 says the Law has changed. For a certain sect of Jews had tried to influence Gentile Christians in that they must be circumcised and keep the Law of Moses. But this was not the case (See: Acts of the Apostles 15:1, Acts of the Apostles 15:5, and Acts of the Apostles 15:24). It's why the temple veil was torn from top to bottom. The laws on the priesthood had ended. The Law of Moses had ended upon the cross. We are under a New Covenant with New Commands that are attached with that Covenant. We are no longer Old Covenant believers. The Old Covenant was given to Israel and not the church. So there is no such thing as breaking the Law of Moses today. If such were the case, then we should stone people for breaking the Law of Moses. So the Law of Moses is not applicable. Yes, certain laws have repeated into the New Covenant like moral laws (i.e. such as do not murder, do not steal, do not covet, etc.), but we are New Covenant believers and we look to Jesus and His followers primarily to obey God and we do not seek to be justified by the Law of Moses.

If you would stop putting words in my mouth and just read the ones I'm actually saying then a lot of your confusion about what I do or don't believe, and what I am or am not saying would be cleared up.

I'm not speaking in code. I'm being quite forthright with you.

For if we seek to be justified by the law; we are fallen from grace according to Paul (See: Galatians 5:4). This is in reference to the Old Testament Law of Moses and not the commands of Jesus. For Paul says in context: “Behold, I Paul say unto you, that if ye be circumcised, Christ shall profit you nothing.” (Galatians 5:2). Circumcision was a part of the Old Testament that was first given to Abraham and then became also incorporated into the Law of Moses.



The problem is that Jesus said beware of the Scribes. Scribes are those who tran-scribe the Law or the Scriptures. Who are the Scribes today? It is the person who transcribes the Scriptures today. It would be people who think they are scholars or experts in translating God's Word. Jesus told us to beware of them and not to implictly trust them. So I do not agree with recent scholars or scribes in their interpretation on what they think the Greek means in Scripture. Many times they change what the English says in my Bible. Jesus chose simple men like fisherman and not scribes or scholars as His team of disciples. So if God chooses simple men, then we must also be simple when reading the Bible, as well. For James says God has chosen the poor of this world to be rich in faith. Is the poor guy the one who is the scholar and has access to tons of manuscripts and or has the money for the schooling to study Biblical Greek? No. So things are not as you say, friend. I just simply read my Bible in the English and believe it. I am not looking to change what it says because I don't like what it says plainly. The English in our Bible should not conflict with the Greek because that is what it is translated from. To say that there are errors in God's Word and we must find them and figure out what is true or not true is not our job. If there is one error in the Bible, then it is all false. The Bible is either all true, or it is all false. We cannot cherry pick what parts of the Bible are true or not. There are no errors in the Bible. God's Word is perfect; Just as God is perfect. For there are no errors in the Bible because it comes from God; And everything God does is perfect.

So caring about scholarship today is bad, because it's being a scribe and Jesus was critical of religious hypocrites and religious elitism of the time. But in the 17th century, it was fine. The translators of the KJV and their scholarship is fine, presumably because reasons?

-CryptoLutheran
 
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False. They are Scripture, as I very clearly said.

So if Romans 1:1 is Scripture, then it is inspired by God.

All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:” (2 Timothy 3:16).​

Logic dictates that if Paul's words like in Romans 1:1 is Scripture, and we know that this is inspired by God because 2 Timothy 3:16 says ALL Scripture is given by inspiration of God, then we must conclude it is the Word of God. Yet, you said, I quote:

You're confusing the words of Scripture with the word of God. The ink and paper words that biblical authors wrote are very much theirs, it's that through these by the power and work of the Holy Spirit is God's word;Quote by: ViaCrucis.

So your statement here appears to be contradictory to me. On one hand you said I am confusing Scripture as the Word of God, and yet on other hand you appear to say that this is so. Not sure what you are driving at by this above statement. If you can explain a little better in what you are talking about in this above quote you made (It would be helpful).

You said:
My point is that Paul didn't just have an innate knowledge that what he wrote would be Scripture. That was something that happened after--by the consensus and agreement of the Church.

I already pointed out to you about how Peter said of Paul's writings that they were Scripture in 2 Peter 3:15-16. So if Peter said this of Paul's writings, then chances are is that Paul knew his writings were Scripture by what Peter said of them.

You said:
I said Paul's letters are Scripture. So no, I never said they weren't. I said the opposite of what you are telling me I said.

I view the Word of God as Scripture, and so when you said that Romans 1:1 was not the Word of God, I took that to mean that you were saying that this is not Scripture.

You said:
"the corrective word of the Law" is what I said. By which I mean God's commandments. That includes the commandments God gave exclusively to the Jews under the covenant established with them on Mt. Sinai.

There is Law--what God commands.
There is Gospel--what God promises and gives.

That's why I said that Christ Himself speaks His loving word of grace and salvation by His Gospel, and also gives us the corrective word of the Law; in Scripture we encounter both Law and Gospel No. It means that the word "Law" is everything God has commanded. Not just the commandments given uniquely to the Jews as part of their covenant with God, nor just the commandments which are given in the New Testament. It means Law is everything God commands.

No, the whole of the Old Law is no more. It's no longer applicable today.

When looking at the Old Law one can categorize the Old Testament Mosaic Law (the 613 Laws of Moses) into a threefold division:
  1. Moral Laws (Any Law pertaining to doing good as a part of nature).
  2. Ceremonial Laws (Laws pertaining to ceremonies or rituals).
  3. Civil Laws (Laws dealing with civil matters; Which includes Laws on carrying out justice).
Even before the written Law of Moses: We can see that there were Moral Laws (like: “Do not murder,” “Do not steal,” Do not covet,” “Do not commit adultery,” etc.), and Ceremonial Laws (like: animal sacrifices).

God's moral laws came into existence for man and would forever exist for him after the Fall of Adam and Eve (after they received the knowledge of good and evil). A Moral Law is any law telling you to do good without a specific law telling you that such a thing is so (See Romans 2:14). These moral laws existed before the Law of Moses.

In the New Covenant (or New Testament) these Moral Laws (like: “Do not murder,” “Do not steal,” Do not covet,” “Do not commit adultery,” etc.) are repeated from the 613 laws within the Law of Moses and they still are in effect (i.e. They have been carried over into the New Testament). However, the Old Testament Law of Moses as a whole or package deal is no more (contractually speaking). Ceremonial Laws or commands: Things like the commands on circumcision, animal sacrifices, the Saturday Sabbath, dietary etc. are no longer binding under the New Covenant. This is because the written Law given to Israel is no longer in effect (as a whole). How so?

Here are a list of verses showing us the Old Law is no more:

"When God speaks of a "new" covenant, it means he has made the first one obsolete. It is now out of date and will soon disappear." (Hebrews 8:13) (NLT).

”Wherefore, my brethren, ye also are become dead to the law by the body of Christ; that ye should be married to another, even to him who is raised from the dead, that we should bring forth fruit unto God.” (Romans 7:4).

"But now we are delivered from the law, that being dead wherein we were held; that we should serve in newness of spirit, and not in the oldness of the letter." (Romans 7:6).

"Blotting out the handwriting of ordinances that was against us, which was contrary to us, and took it out of the way, nailing it to his cross;" (Colossians 2:14).

20 "Wherefore if ye be dead with Christ from the rudiments of the world, why, as though living in the world, are ye subject to ordinances,
21 (Touch not; taste not; handle not;
22 Which all are to perish with the using; ) after the commandments and doctrines of men?
23 Which things have indeed a shew of wisdom in will worship, and humility, and neglecting of the body: not in any honour to the satisfying of the flesh."
(Colossians 2:20-23).

“By abolishing in His [own crucified] flesh the enmity [caused by] the Law with its decrees and ordinances [which He annulled]; that He from the two might create in Himself one new man [one new quality of humanity out of the two], so making peace.” (Ephesians 2:15) (AMPC).

"The old [former] rule [commandment; regulation] is now set aside [nullified; abolished], because it was weak and useless [ineffective]." (Hebrews 7:18) (EXB).

9 “Which was a figure for the time then present, in which were offered both gifts and sacrifices, that could not make him that did the service perfect, as pertaining to the conscience;
10 Which stood only in meats and drinks, and divers washings, and carnal ordinances, imposed on them until the time of reformation.” (Hebrews 9:9-10).

16 “For where a testament is, there must also of necessity be the death of the testator.
17 For a testament is of force after men are dead: otherwise it is of no strength at all while the testator liveth.” (Hebrews 9:16-17).

”And for this cause he is the mediator of the new testament…” (Hebrews 9:15).

27 “And he took the cup, and gave thanks, and gave it to them, saying, Drink ye all of it;
28 For this is my blood of the new testament, which is shed for many for the remission of sins.” (Matthew 26:27-28).

50 “Jesus, when he had cried again with a loud voice, yielded up the ghost.
51 And, behold, the veil of the temple was rent in twain from the top to the bottom; “ (Matthew 27:20-51).

8 “Above when he said, Sacrifice and offering and burnt offerings and offering for sin thou wouldest not, neither hadst pleasure therein; which are offered by the law;
9 Then said he, Lo, I come to do thy will, O God. He taketh away the first, that he may establish the second.” (Hebrews 10:8-9).

“And certain men which came down from Judaea taught the brethren, and said, Except ye be circumcised after the manner of Moses, ye cannot be saved.” (Acts of the Apostles 15:1).

“But there rose up certain of the sect of the Pharisees which believed, saying, That it was needful to circumcise them, and to command them to keep the law of Moses.” (Acts of the Apostles 15:5).

“Forasmuch as we have heard, that certain which went out from us have troubled you with words, subverting your souls, saying, Ye must be circumcised, and keep the law: to whom we gave no such commandment” (Acts of the Apostles 15:24).

28 "For it seemed good to the Holy Ghost, and to us, to lay upon you no greater burden than these necessary things;
29 That ye abstain from meats offered to idols, and from blood, and from things strangled, and from fornication: from which if ye keep yourselves, ye shall do well. Fare ye well." (Acts of the Apostles 15:28-29).

7 "But if the ministration of death, written and engraven in stones, was glorious, so that the children of Israel could not stedfastly behold the face of Moses for the glory of his countenance; which glory was to be done away:
8 How shall not the ministration of the spirit be rather glorious?
9 For if the ministration of condemnation be glory, much more doth the ministration of righteousness exceed in glory.
10 For even that which was made glorious had no glory in this respect, by reason of the glory that excelleth.
11 For if that which is done away was glorious, much more that which remaineth is glorious." (2 Corinthians 3:7-11).

“But their minds were blinded: for until this day remaineth the same vail untaken away in the reading of the old testament; which vail is done away in Christ.” (2 Corinthians 3:14).​

The Old Covenant says this about circumcision:

"And the uncircumcised man child whose flesh of his foreskin is not circumcised, that soul shall be cut off from his people; he hath broken my covenant." (Genesis 17:14).​

Yet, the New Covenant says this about circumcision:

"Behold, I Paul say unto you, that if ye be circumcised, Christ shall profit you nothing." (Galatians 5:2).​

The Old Covenant says this about the Sabbath:

32 "And while the children of Israel were in the wilderness, they found a man that gathered sticks upon the sabbath day.
33 And they that found him gathering sticks brought him unto Moses and Aaron, and unto all the congregation.
34 And they put him in ward, because it was not declared what should be done to him.
35 And the Lord said unto Moses, The man shall be surely put to death: all the congregation shall stone him with stones without the camp.
36 And all the congregation brought him without the camp, and stoned him with stones, and he died; as the Lord commanded Moses." (Numbers 15:32-36).​

Yet, the New Covenant says this about the Sabbath:

"Let no man therefore judge you in meat, or in drink, or in respect of an holyday, or of the new moon, or of the sabbath days:" (Colossians 2:16).​

So it appears things have changed.

This makes sense because Hebrews 7:12 says the Law has changed.

"For the priesthood being changed, there is made of necessity a change also of the law." (Hebrews 7:12).

“For the law was given by Moses, but grace and truth came by Jesus Christ.” (John 1:17).​

In conclusion:

You sort of have to look at the Old Covenant (Old Testament) as one contract, and the New Covenant (New Testament) as another contract. It's kind of like a contract when you buy a house. If you did not like certain things in the contract, you could ask them to make some changes in the contract. If they agreed to the changes, you would then go by the new contract, and the old contract for the house would be discarded. There may be some similar things between the old contract, and the new contract, but you stick with the new contract in your dealing with buying the house. Meaning: This is why we seek to follow the New Covenant (New Testament) primarily even though there are certain laws that have carried over from the Old Covenant (Old Testament). We are clearly not under the 613 Laws of Moses as a whole or package deal. We follow the commands that come from Jesus and His followers.

You said:
We cannot be justified by the Law period. Not just the commandments given through Moses to the Jews, but all that God commands. One cannot be righteous or made just by obedience to commandments. Only the Gospel can justify, and it does so because here is the grace of God, by which we have received the imputed righteousness of Jesus Christ, by grace alone, through faith. And therefore we are justified by grace alone through faith. Not by works.

Most Christians hold to the view that we need to believe in Jesus in order to be saved. Yet, to even believe in Jesus is a commandment or Law according 1 John 3:23.

“And this is his commandment, That we should believe on the name of his Son Jesus Christ, and love one another, as he gave us commandment.” (1 John 3:23).​

There is also the law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus, too.

“For the law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus hath made me free from the law of sin and death.” (Romans 8:2).

In fact, keeping the law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus makes us free from the Old Law of sin and death (i.e. the 613 Laws of Moses given to Israel). For it was called the Law of sin and death because one could be stoned by God's people for disobeying the Law of Moses. This is not the case under the New Covenant.

Anyways, Romans 8:2 is a law that deals with salvation. For the definition of the law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus is defined for us in Romans 8:1. For there is no condemnation to those in Christ Jesus who walk not after the flesh (sin), but who walk after the Spirit. This is a part of our salvation because there is no condemnation for us if we are abiding in this law. But if we do not obey this law, there is death. For Romans 8:13 says if we live after the flesh (sin), we will die, but if we put to death the misdeeds of the body (sin) by the Spirit, we shall live.

You said:
So caring about scholarship today is bad, because it's being a scribe and Jesus was critical of religious hypocrites and religious elitism of the time. But in the 17th century, it was fine. The translators of the KJV and their scholarship is fine, presumably because reasons?

-CryptoLutheran

The KJB was a result of God preserving His Words for us today. There are many evidences showing the KJB to be divine in origin. No other Bible today compares to it. There is one perfect Word of God and there is not many words of God (or many Bibles). There can be only one, just as there is one God (i.e. Who is Triune). This does not mean I don't use Modern Translations by any means, but this simply means I have a final word of authority that is in most parts clear to understand. I don't have to decipher God's Word as if it was some kind of riddle that needs to be unraveled. I just read it, and believe it. The Bible is difficult enough as it is to read in English and even then folks misunderstand what it is saying. Not sure why one must make it more complicated by looking to the original languages. Sure, original language studies can be helpful sometimes, but it should not conflict with the English written in our Bible.
 
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ViaCrucis

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So if Romans 1:1 is Scripture, then it is inspired by God.

Yes. That's what I've said several times now. I've said that Scripture is divinely inspired, that means inspired by God. I've repeatedly said this, many times now.

Logic dictates that if Paul's words like in Romans 1:1 is Scripture, and we know that this is inspired by God because 2 Timothy 3:16 says ALL Scripture is given by inspiration of God, then we must conclude it is the Word of God. Yet, you said, I quote:

You're confusing the words of Scripture with the word of God. The ink and paper words that biblical authors wrote are very much theirs, it's that through these by the power and work of the Holy Spirit is God's word;Quote by: ViaCrucis.

So your statement here appears to be contradictory to me. On one hand you said I am confusing Scripture as the Word of God, and yet on other hand you appear to say that this is so. Not sure what you are driving at by this above statement. If you can explain a little better in what you are talking about in this above quote you made (It would be helpful).

I've also affirmed that Scripture is God's word.

I didn't realize when I wrote that it would result in this bizarre tangent, as I didn't think what I said would be that difficult.

The words which the biblical writers wrote down, are their own words.
God uses their words to speak His word.
The Scriptures are God's word, not because God wrote what's in them, but because He inspired them, because He speaks through them.

I already pointed out to you about how Peter said of Paul's writings that they were Scripture in 2 Peter 3:15-16. So if Peter said this of Paul's writings, then chances are is that Paul knew his writings were Scripture by what Peter said of them.

Would you have preferred that I picked a different example? You're hung up on this. No, I don't think there's any reason to think Paul knew his writings were Scripture. And even assuming that 2 Peter is authentically Petrine (and it may not be, it may have been written much later after Peter's death) that only demonstrates that the canonical Pauline epistles were already in circulation as Scripture at the time of the letter's writing. Which I've never argued against, and which falls under what I've been saying about Scripture being recognized as such by the consensus of the Church.

I view the Word of God as Scripture, and so when you said that Romans 1:1 was not the Word of God, I took that to mean that you were saying that this is not Scripture.

I didn't say Romans 1:1 wasn't the word of God.

I simply understand "word of God" in reference to Scripture differently than you do.

No, the whole of the Old Law is no more. It's no longer applicable today.

When looking at the Old Law one can categorize the Old Testament Mosaic Law (the 613 Laws of Moses) into a threefold division:
  1. Moral Laws (Any Law pertaining to doing good as a part of nature).
  2. Ceremonial Laws (Laws pertaining to ceremonies or rituals).
  3. Civil Laws (Laws dealing with civil matters; Which includes Laws on carrying out justice).
Even before the written Law of Moses: We can see that there were Moral Laws (like: “Do not murder,” “Do not steal,” Do not covet,” “Do not commit adultery,” etc.), and Ceremonial Laws (like: animal sacrifices).

God's moral laws came into existence for man and would forever exist for him after the Fall of Adam and Eve (after they received the knowledge of good and evil). A Moral Law is any law telling you to do good without a specific law telling you that such a thing is so (See Romans 2:14). These moral laws existed before the Law of Moses.

In the New Covenant (or New Testament) these Moral Laws (like: “Do not murder,” “Do not steal,” Do not covet,” “Do not commit adultery,” etc.) are repeated from the 613 laws within the Law of Moses and they still are in effect (i.e. They have been carried over into the New Testament). However, the Old Testament Law of Moses as a whole or package deal is no more (contractually speaking). Ceremonial Laws or commands: Things like the commands on circumcision, animal sacrifices, the Saturday Sabbath, dietary etc. are no longer binding under the New Covenant. This is because the written Law given to Israel is no longer in effect (as a whole). How so?

Here are a list of verses showing us the Old Law is no more:

"When God speaks of a "new" covenant, it means he has made the first one obsolete. It is now out of date and will soon disappear." (Hebrews 8:13) (NLT).

”Wherefore, my brethren, ye also are become dead to the law by the body of Christ; that ye should be married to another, even to him who is raised from the dead, that we should bring forth fruit unto God.” (Romans 7:4).

"But now we are delivered from the law, that being dead wherein we were held; that we should serve in newness of spirit, and not in the oldness of the letter." (Romans 7:6).

"Blotting out the handwriting of ordinances that was against us, which was contrary to us, and took it out of the way, nailing it to his cross;" (Colossians 2:14).

20 "Wherefore if ye be dead with Christ from the rudiments of the world, why, as though living in the world, are ye subject to ordinances,
21 (Touch not; taste not; handle not;
22 Which all are to perish with the using; ) after the commandments and doctrines of men?
23 Which things have indeed a shew of wisdom in will worship, and humility, and neglecting of the body: not in any honour to the satisfying of the flesh."
(Colossians 2:20-23).

“By abolishing in His [own crucified] flesh the enmity [caused by] the Law with its decrees and ordinances [which He annulled]; that He from the two might create in Himself one new man [one new quality of humanity out of the two], so making peace.” (Ephesians 2:15) (AMPC).

"The old [former] rule [commandment; regulation] is now set aside [nullified; abolished], because it was weak and useless [ineffective]." (Hebrews 7:18) (EXB).

9 “Which was a figure for the time then present, in which were offered both gifts and sacrifices, that could not make him that did the service perfect, as pertaining to the conscience;
10 Which stood only in meats and drinks, and divers washings, and carnal ordinances, imposed on them until the time of reformation.” (Hebrews 9:9-10).

16 “For where a testament is, there must also of necessity be the death of the testator.
17 For a testament is of force after men are dead: otherwise it is of no strength at all while the testator liveth.” (Hebrews 9:16-17).

”And for this cause he is the mediator of the new testament…” (Hebrews 9:15).

27 “And he took the cup, and gave thanks, and gave it to them, saying, Drink ye all of it;
28 For this is my blood of the new testament, which is shed for many for the remission of sins.” (Matthew 26:27-28).

50 “Jesus, when he had cried again with a loud voice, yielded up the ghost.
51 And, behold, the veil of the temple was rent in twain from the top to the bottom; “ (Matthew 27:20-51).

8 “Above when he said, Sacrifice and offering and burnt offerings and offering for sin thou wouldest not, neither hadst pleasure therein; which are offered by the law;
9 Then said he, Lo, I come to do thy will, O God. He taketh away the first, that he may establish the second.” (Hebrews 10:8-9).

“And certain men which came down from Judaea taught the brethren, and said, Except ye be circumcised after the manner of Moses, ye cannot be saved.” (Acts of the Apostles 15:1).

“But there rose up certain of the sect of the Pharisees which believed, saying, That it was needful to circumcise them, and to command them to keep the law of Moses.” (Acts of the Apostles 15:5).

“Forasmuch as we have heard, that certain which went out from us have troubled you with words, subverting your souls, saying, Ye must be circumcised, and keep the law: to whom we gave no such commandment” (Acts of the Apostles 15:24).

28 "For it seemed good to the Holy Ghost, and to us, to lay upon you no greater burden than these necessary things;
29 That ye abstain from meats offered to idols, and from blood, and from things strangled, and from fornication: from which if ye keep yourselves, ye shall do well. Fare ye well." (Acts of the Apostles 15:28-29).

7 "But if the ministration of death, written and engraven in stones, was glorious, so that the children of Israel could not stedfastly behold the face of Moses for the glory of his countenance; which glory was to be done away:
8 How shall not the ministration of the spirit be rather glorious?
9 For if the ministration of condemnation be glory, much more doth the ministration of righteousness exceed in glory.
10 For even that which was made glorious had no glory in this respect, by reason of the glory that excelleth.
11 For if that which is done away was glorious, much more that which remaineth is glorious." (2 Corinthians 3:7-11).

“But their minds were blinded: for until this day remaineth the same vail untaken away in the reading of the old testament; which vail is done away in Christ.” (2 Corinthians 3:14).​

The Old Covenant says this about circumcision:

"And the uncircumcised man child whose flesh of his foreskin is not circumcised, that soul shall be cut off from his people; he hath broken my covenant." (Genesis 17:14).​

Yet, the New Covenant says this about circumcision:

"Behold, I Paul say unto you, that if ye be circumcised, Christ shall profit you nothing." (Galatians 5:2).​

The Old Covenant says this about the Sabbath:

32 "And while the children of Israel were in the wilderness, they found a man that gathered sticks upon the sabbath day.
33 And they that found him gathering sticks brought him unto Moses and Aaron, and unto all the congregation.
34 And they put him in ward, because it was not declared what should be done to him.
35 And the Lord said unto Moses, The man shall be surely put to death: all the congregation shall stone him with stones without the camp.
36 And all the congregation brought him without the camp, and stoned him with stones, and he died; as the Lord commanded Moses." (Numbers 15:32-36).​

Yet, the New Covenant says this about the Sabbath:

"Let no man therefore judge you in meat, or in drink, or in respect of an holyday, or of the new moon, or of the sabbath days:" (Colossians 2:16).​

So it appears things have changed.

This makes sense because Hebrews 7:12 says the Law has changed.

"For the priesthood being changed, there is made of necessity a change also of the law." (Hebrews 7:12).

“For the law was given by Moses, but grace and truth came by Jesus Christ.” (John 1:17).​

In conclusion:

You sort of have to look at the Old Covenant (Old Testament) as one contract, and the New Covenant (New Testament) as another contract. It's kind of like a contract when you buy a house. If you did not like certain things in the contract, you could ask them to make some changes in the contract. If they agreed to the changes, you would then go by the new contract, and the old contract for the house would be discarded. There may be some similar things between the old contract, and the new contract, but you stick with the new contract in your dealing with buying the house. Meaning: This is why we seek to follow the New Covenant (New Testament) primarily even though there are certain laws that have carried over from the Old Covenant (Old Testament). We are clearly not under the 613 Laws of Moses as a whole or package deal. We follow the commands that come from Jesus and His followers.



Most Christians hold to the view that we need to believe in Jesus in order to be saved. Yet, to even believe in Jesus is a commandment or Law according 1 John 3:23.

“And this is his commandment, That we should believe on the name of his Son Jesus Christ, and love one another, as he gave us commandment.” (1 John 3:23).​

There is also the law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus, too.

“For the law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus hath made me free from the law of sin and death.” (Romans 8:2).

In fact, keeping the law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus makes us free from the Old Law of sin and death (i.e. the 613 Laws of Moses given to Israel). For it was called the Law of sin and death because one could be stoned by God's people for disobeying the Law of Moses. This is not the case under the New Covenant.

Anyways, Romans 8:2 is a law that deals with salvation. For the definition of the law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus is defined for us in Romans 8:1. For there is no condemnation to those in Christ Jesus who walk not after the flesh (sin), but who walk after the Spirit. This is a part of our salvation because there is no condemnation for us if we are abiding in this law. But if we do not obey this law, there is death. For Romans 8:13 says if we live after the flesh (sin), we will die, but if we put to death the misdeeds of the body (sin) by the Spirit, we shall live.

I have not at any point suggested that we are supposed to observe the commandments God gave ancient Israel. So I don't know why you keep arguing as though that's something I've said.

Just so I don't have to repeat myself:

I DO NOT BELIEVE THAT CHRISTIANS ARE SUPPOSED TO OBSERVE THE MOSAIC LAW.





The KJB was a result of God preserving His Words for us today. There are many evidences showing the KJB to be divine in origin. No other Bible today compares to it. There is one perfect Word of God and there is not many words of God (or many Bibles). There can be only one, just as there is one God (i.e. Who is Triune). This does not mean I don't use Modern Translations by any means, but this simply means I have a final word of authority that is in most parts clear to understand. I don't have to decipher God's Word as if it was some kind of riddle that needs to be unraveled. I just read it, and believe it. The Bible is difficult enough as it is to read in English and even then folks misunderstand what it is saying. Not sure why one must make it more complicated by looking to the original languages. Sure, original language studies can be helpful sometimes, but it should not conflict with the English written in our Bible.

And yet, it's very clear that the KJV isn't perfect. It's not the best translation. It doesn't have a divine origin. It's just a 17th century translation made by a group of scholars.

-CryptoLutheran
 
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Yes. That's what I've said several times now. I've said that Scripture is divinely inspired, that means inspired by God. I've repeatedly said this, many times now.

I've also affirmed that Scripture is God's word.

I didn't realize when I wrote that it would result in this bizarre tangent, as I didn't think what I said would be that difficult.

The words which the biblical writers wrote down, are their own words.
God uses their words to speak His word.
The Scriptures are God's word, not because God wrote what's in them, but because He inspired them, because He speaks through them.

You said before:

You're confusing the words of Scripture with the word of God.Quote by: ViaCrucis.​

Okay. So now you are changing your mind on this statement, and the Scriptures are the Word of God?
If so, that's okay. I have changed my mind on things in Scripture over the years. So then I am not confused that the words of Scripture are the Word of God. If you are still standing by this previous statement, then you need to clarify what you mean.

You said:
Would you have preferred that I picked a different example? You're hung up on this.

I am only hung up on the truth of God's Word, and in clarifying that truth.

You said:
No, I don't think there's any reason to think Paul knew his writings were Scripture. And even assuming that 2 Peter is authentically Petrine (and it may not be, it may have been written much later after Peter's death) that only demonstrates that the canonical Pauline epistles were already in circulation as Scripture at the time of the letter's writing. Which I've never argued against, and which falls under what I've been saying about Scripture being recognized as such by the consensus of the Church.

2 Peter 1:1-2 says,
“Simon Peter, a servant and an apostle of Jesus Christ, to them that have obtained like precious faith with us through the righteousness of God and our Saviour Jesus Christ: Grace and peace be multiplied unto you through the knowledge of God, and of Jesus our Lord,”

So clearly this epistle was written by Peter. The point here is not whether Peter's epistle is Scripture, but that Paul's writings are Scripture according to Peter. 2 Peter 3:15-16 is a passage by Peter that implies heavily that Paul's writings are Scripture. Peter states that Paul's words are hard to understand and that there are some who twist his words (writings) as they do other Scriptures. That's what it basically says. So the point here is that Peter knew that Paul's writings were Scripture. Thus there is a good chance Paul knew of what Peter knew by his letter here.
I didn't say Romans 1:1 wasn't the word of God.

You said, I quote:

I didn't choose Romans 1:1 for any special reason, it's totally random; the point is that these are actually Paul's words. God didn't write them, Paul did.Quote by: ViaCrucis.​

You said here God did not write Romans 1:1; This implies it is not the Word of God. Can you explain that? 2 Timothy 3:16 says all Scripture is given by inspiration of God. This means that God inspired men to write down God's words. So God was working through men to write His words. So God ultimately was the author.

You said:
I simply understand "word of God" in reference to Scripture differently than you do.

Care to explain it?

You said:
Just so I don't have to repeat myself:

I DO NOT BELIEVE THAT CHRISTIANS ARE SUPPOSED TO OBSERVE THE MOSAIC LAW.

You said, I quote:

“...Christ Himself speaks to us His loving word of grace and salvation by His Gospel, and also gives us the corrective word of the Law to chastise us and bring us to repentance.” Quote by: ViaCrucis.​

I asked you which law are you referring to later and I gave you some options, and you said “yes” to the Law being the 613 Laws of Moses in your post #59. Now, you are saying that this is not the case. Again, it's okay if you change your mind. It just doesn't sound like you are being consistent with what you previously said unless you care to explain it more in detail.

Okay, so if Christians are not supposed to obey the Mosaic Law, then which Law (or set of Laws) are they supposed to obey?

#1. Only the two greatest commandments only.
#2. The hundreds of commands given to us in the New Testament.
#3. None. We do not have to keep any of God's laws. Jesus did it all for us.
#4. Other (Please explain).

You said:
And yet, it's very clear that the KJV isn't perfect. It's not the best translation. It doesn't have a divine origin. It's just a 17th century translation made by a group of scholars.

-CryptoLutheran

The text of the KJB itself is divine in origin, just as the text for the original languages is divine in origin. There are several evidences that shows this; One big one is biblical numerics.

+.............Luke 4:4
+........Matthew 4:4
+ Deuteronomy 8:3
________________
= ..................16:11

1 column (green) added up together in a straight line down = 16.

One column (red) added up together in a straight line down = 11.

This is a total of 16:11 or 1611.

The year 1611 (Which is a major change in human history) with the bringing in of the King James Bible.

Luke 4:4 says,
"And Jesus answered him, saying, It is written, That man shall not live by bread alone, but by every word of God."

Matthew 4:4 says,
"But he answered and said, It is written, Man shall not live by bread alone, but by every word that proceedeth out of the mouth of God."

Deuteronomy 8:3 says,
"And he humbled thee, and suffered thee to hunger, and fed thee with manna, which thou knewest not, neither did thy fathers know; that he might make thee know that man doth not live by bread only, but by every word that proceedeth out of the mouth of the LORD doth man live."

Biblical Numerics Confirms the King James Bible:

Bible Numbers that glorify God and His Word. (Note: This is not like traditional Numerology where a person guides their life by numbers. These are also not equidistant letter sequences or numbers that attempt to get one to have a special dream, or to divine the future in some way; Striving to foretell the future is forbidden in the Bible). Numbers are something that we deal with in our everyday life and all things glorify God. So obviously the numbers in God's Word would naturally glorify Him in some way. What am I talking about? Check out this video on Numbers & the Greek New Testament.

Sevens in the Bible - Chuck Missler:

Also, here is a video series by Mike Hoggard that talks about the number 7 in the King James.

King James Code - Number 7 - Mike Hoggard (Part 1):

King James Code - Number 7 - Mike Hoggard (Part 2):

Now, I do not agree with Chuck's view on Salvation. I also do not like watching Mike's regular sermon videos because they can get a little far out there. But, while I may not agree with Mike and Chuck on everything they teach in the Bible nor on the way they teach the Bible in every instance, their teaching on Biblical numerics are amazing; I have found that they have made some startling discoveries. Discoveries that do not appear in the modern translations but only in the original languages (Chuck) and only in the King James (Mike). Don't believe me? Just watch the videos for yourself.

A Note on Biblical Numerics:

Again, some confuse this with numerology (Which is false). Numerology is about living your life under the guidance by numbers (Which is wrong). I believe biblical numerics helps us primarily to see that God's Word is divine in origin. In this case, it helps to prove the KJV is God's Word. While the following CF thread link on the number 46 in the Bible is not exactly a defense for the KJV in every instance the number 46 appears, it does help to show the validity of the King James Bible being superior over the Modern Translations. For certain instances the number 46 appears only shows up in the King James tying in with the meaning behind the number.

The Amazing Bible Number 46.
 
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Yes. That's what I've said several times now. I've said that Scripture is divinely inspired, that means inspired by God. I've repeatedly said this, many times now.



I've also affirmed that Scripture is God's word.

I didn't realize when I wrote that it would result in this bizarre tangent, as I didn't think what I said would be that difficult.

The words which the biblical writers wrote down, are their own words.
God uses their words to speak His word.
The Scriptures are God's word, not because God wrote what's in them, but because He inspired them, because He speaks through them.



Would you have preferred that I picked a different example? You're hung up on this. No, I don't think there's any reason to think Paul knew his writings were Scripture. And even assuming that 2 Peter is authentically Petrine (and it may not be, it may have been written much later after Peter's death) that only demonstrates that the canonical Pauline epistles were already in circulation as Scripture at the time of the letter's writing. Which I've never argued against, and which falls under what I've been saying about Scripture being recognized as such by the consensus of the Church.



I didn't say Romans 1:1 wasn't the word of God.

I simply understand "word of God" in reference to Scripture differently than you do.



I have not at any point suggested that we are supposed to observe the commandments God gave ancient Israel. So I don't know why you keep arguing as though that's something I've said.

Just so I don't have to repeat myself:

I DO NOT BELIEVE THAT CHRISTIANS ARE SUPPOSED TO OBSERVE THE MOSAIC LAW.







And yet, it's very clear that the KJV isn't perfect. It's not the best translation. It doesn't have a divine origin. It's just a 17th century translation made by a group of scholars.

-CryptoLutheran

In addition, Sanctification (works of God done through the believer) is required as a part of God's plan of salvation after we are saved by God's grace. Here are several points in Scripture that proves this.

  1. We are justified by works and not by faith alone (James 2:24).

  2. Faith without works is dead (James 2:17).

  3. A person can deny God by a lack of works (Titus 1:16).

  4. Jesus agreed with the lawyer that to love God, and to love your neighbor is a part of inheriting eternal life (Luke 10:25-28).

  5. Those who have done good, shall come forth unto the resurrection of life; and those who have done evil, shall come forth unto the resurrection of damnation (John 5:29).

  6. We have to continue in His goodness, otherwise we can be cut off [just like the Jews were cut off] (Romans 11:21-22).

  7. Helping the poor, and the unfortunate relates to inheriting the Kingdom (Matthew 25:34-40), and not helping the poor, and the unfortunate relates to going away into everlasting punishment (Matthew 25:41-46).

  8. Whoever does not righteousness or does not love his brother is not of God (1 John 3:10).

  9. Whoever does what Jesus says is likened unto a wise man who built his house upon the rock, and when a storm came, it did not fall, (Matthew 7:24-25), but the person who does not do what Jesus says is likened unto a fool who built his house upon the sand, and when a storm came, great was the fall of that house (Matthew 7:26-27).

  10. Abiding in Jesus will bear much fruit, but if a person does not abide in Jesus [thereby being unfruitful], they are cast out [or cut off] like a branch to be burned in the fire (John 15:5-6).

  11. If the righteous scarcely be saved, where shall the ungodly and the sinner appear? Wherefore let them that suffer according to the will of God commit the keeping of their souls to him in well doing (1 Peter 4:18-19).

  12. Pursue peace with all people, and holiness, without which no one will see the Lord (Hebrews 12:14) (NKJV).

I believe that this involves keeping the commandments that come from Jesus Christ and His followers in the New Testament (i.e. the New Covenant). Paul says if any man does not agree with the words of Jesus Christ and the doctrine according to godliness, he is proud and he knows nothing (1 Timothy 6:3-4). James 4:6 says God resists the proud and he gives grace to the humble. God's grace teaches us to deny ungodliness and that we should live righteously and godly in this present world (Titus 2:11-12). For it is written: “Who gave himself for us, that he might redeem us from all iniquity, and purify unto himself a peculiar people, zealous of good works.” (Titus 2:14).
 
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Davy

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At the end of the day it seems a lot of people dislike people defending the KJV but are happy for people to attack and bash it. Something not quite right there.

Ah! You hit it on the nail!

Satan's servants are ever trying to get away from the 1611 KJV because of how it was based on the MAJORITY TEXTS (5000+ existing Greek manuscripts which agree with each other).

Bible text used from Wescott & Hort's translations of 5 Greek texts that do not agree with other (NT only), are not the same Greek texts the KJV translators used at all, so there's Scripture missing using the Wescott & Hort text (i.e., NIV, NASB, NKJV, NRSV, NAB, RSV, REB, CEV, TEV, GNB, LIVING, PHILLIPS, NEW JERUSALEM, NEW CENTURY, NEW WORLD TRANSLATION). These more modern Bible versions are based on Wescott & Hort's translation of corrupted texts.

See this explanation:

Modern Bible Versions, and Westcott and Hort (27-5) – APOSTOLIC INFORMATION SERVICE


'New and Improved' does not... mean a better or more accurate Bible version. That's man's hype.

The devil is trying to distort God's written Word, and he has with many of the modern Bible versions.
 
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anna ~ grace

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There have been a few discussions as to whether the KJV is truly "in English" or if it is in "another language." So I thought it was time for a quiz.

The poll combines one grammar question and 3 questions about word meanings, so you should tick 4 boxes. Answers are in the spoiler box.

1. God created Eve for Adam (most got this wrong).

In the phrase "help meet for him," help = helper is a noun, and meet = suitable is an adjective. Adjectives on their own always go before the noun, so we must write "meet help" = "suitable helper," not "help meet" = "helper suitable":

God created Eve for Adam as a meet help.

2. The "quick and the dead" (everybody got this right).

The "quick and the dead" are the "alive and the dead."

3. In Romans 1:13, "let hitherto" (half got this wrong).

The word "let" used to mean "prevented," and has totally changed its meaning. The old meaning survives in the phrase "without let or hindrance" on passports (US passports use modern English instead):

DzWgds5WwAE4QEv


In Romans 1:13, "let hitherto" means "prevented hitherto."

4. In 1 Corinthians 10:25, a shambles is a slaughterhouse (it later became a metaphor for extreme messiness). Half got this wrong:

In 1 Corinthians 10:25, only meat is sold in a shambles.

Overall, that's about 50% wrong: KJV English is more difficult than KJV advocates make out. Indeed, even defenders of the KJV admit that you often need the same tools that you would need for a foreign language.
Interesting. Thank you! I don’t mind the KJV, but stuff like this shows that more modern language is helpful.
 
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Davy

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Interesting. Thank you! I don’t mind the KJV, but stuff like this shows that more modern language is helpful.

Yeah, as long as you don't mind not having a complete Bible, and one with corruptions.
 
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RDKirk

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Ah! You hit it on the nail!

Satan's servants are ever trying to get away from the 1611 KJV because of how it was based on the MAJORITY TEXTS (5000+ existing Greek manuscripts which agree with each other).

Bible text used from Wescott & Hort's translations of 5 Greek texts that do not agree with other (NT only), are not the same Greek texts the KJV translators used at all, so there's Scripture missing using the Wescott & Hort text (i.e., NIV, NASB, NKJV, NRSV, NAB, RSV, REB, CEV, TEV, GNB, LIVING, PHILLIPS, NEW JERUSALEM, NEW CENTURY, NEW WORLD TRANSLATION). These more modern Bible versions are based on Wescott & Hort's translation of corrupted texts.

See this explanation:

Modern Bible Versions, and Westcott and Hort (27-5) – APOSTOLIC INFORMATION SERVICE


'New and Improved' does not... mean a better or more accurate Bible version. That's man's hype.

The devil is trying to distort God's written Word, and he has with many of the modern Bible versions.

Yeah, as long as you don't mind not having a complete Bible, and one with corruptions.

My study bibles are all versions with newer translations parallel with the KJV that point out where texts differ. I've been studying with parallel bibles for 40 years. I don't see all those exclusions you're talking about.
 
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Davy

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My study bibles are all versions with newer translations parallel with the KJV that point out where texts differ. I've been studying with parallel bibles for 40 years. I don't see all those exclusions you're talking about.

Missing and Incorrectly Translated Verses in The NIV
By Dr. Rocco Badenhorst

Matthew 6:13
Here the NIV omits an important part of the “Lord’s Prayer, “For Thine is the kingdom, the power and the glory for ever, Amen.”

Matthew 19:17
This verse should be stated correctly as, as in the KJV “Why callest thou me good? There is none good but one, that is, God:”

Matthew 23:14
The NIV omitted this verse completely. Some of the translators of the NIV evidently did not like the word “damnation.”


Matthew 23:23
The word “faith” and the word “faithfulness” do not mean the same. The KJV of the Bible says, “By faith we are saved,” not by “faithfulness. I do not believe that “faith” and “faithfulness” have the same meaning.)

Mark 9:29.
The NIV omitted “fasting.” Our Lord Jesus fasted for 40 days and 40 nights.

Mark 13:33
The KJV says, “Watch and Pray.” It is not the same as “be on guard! Be alert!” as translated in the NIV. To be a watchful and praying Christian is paramount.

Mark 15:28
This verse was omitted from the NIV. It was a prophecy from the Old Testament proclaiming the Deity of Christ.)

Luke 4:4
Words omitted in this verse, “but by every Word of God.” All of existence was brought into being by the Word of God. Jesus IS The Word of God. (This is one of the most important verses in the Bible)

Luke 4:8
“Get thee behind me Satan,” in the KJV. Why did the NIV translators not put these words in?

Luke 6:40
“Perfect” is not the same as “fully trained,” as stated in the NIV. Jesus wants us to be perfect in Him, not “fully trained.”

Luke 5:20
Jesus did not call the sinner “friend,” as translated in the NIV. He called him, “man,” as translated in the KJV.

Luke 11:2-4
When we pray the Lord’s Prayer, we pray “Our Father which art in Heaven”. The NIV omitted the words “Our” and only mentions “Father.” Are they referring to another father? In addition, “deliver us from evil” was omitted in verse 4 by the NIV translators. Did they not see a need for deliverance?

Luke 12:31
Here again the NIV omits these important words. It should say “The kingdom of God.” The NIV says, “his kingdom.” To which kingdom are they referring?

Luke 21:19
“Patience” is a gift of the Holy Spirit — “Standing firm” is not the same.

John 4:42
The NIV omitted the “Christ” which means “Anointed One.”

John 9:35
In this particular verse, It should be “Son of God” and not, “son of man,” as the NIV translates it.

Matthew 8:29
NIV translators omitted the name, “Jesus,” thou Son of God.

John 6:47
NIV says, “he who believes.” Should be, “He who believes on Me has everlasting life.” Believing is not enough.

Acts 8:18
NIV says, “spirit – should be “Holy Spirit.” Man has a spirit also.) Which spirit are the translators of the NIV referring to ?

Acts 10:30
(NIV omitted “fasting.” Fasting is powerful for seeing answers to our needs.

Acts 8:37
NIV omitted this entire verse – it is vital to Salvation (Did the translators of the NIV feel ashamed of the Name of Jesus?

Acts 10:30
NIV omitted the word “fasting” – fasting is powerful for seeing needs being met.

Acts 22:16
NIV says “Calling on his name.” KJV says “The Name of the Lord.”

Romans 11:6
The NIV is not very clear on this verse and the KJV explains “Grace and Works.” The NIV omits, ”But if it be of works, then it is no more grace.” This is an important part of the Gospel.

11 Corinthians 7:4
KJV says, “boldness of speech.” NIV says, “I have great confidence in you.”

11 Corinthians 10:5
KJV “Casting down imaginations” is correct. NIV says, “demolish arguments.” See Isaiah 2:11-12 for the importance of casting down imaginations.

Galatians 4:7
KJV says “servant,” and not “slave,” as translated in the NIV. A servant has the choice of leaving his master and a slave does not have a choice. The importance of this translation is that we have a choice of serving Christ or of deserting Him, whereas, a slave does not have that choice.

Galatians 5:22
The NIV translators used the word “faithfulness” in place of the word ”faith.” We are saved by faith and not by being faithful.

Galatians 6:15
NIV omits “for in Christ Jesus” in this verse.

Ephesians 3:9
NIV omitted “created all things by Jesus Christ.” Revelation 22:19 warns us about taking away from the Word of God.

Ephesians 3:14
KJV says, “I bow my knees unto the Father of our Lord Jesus Christ.” NIV says, “I kneel before the Father.” (Which father are they talking about?)

Philippians 3:21
KJV says, “Vile bodies.” NIV says, “lowly bodies.” These words have different meanings. Vile means sinful and lowly means humble.

Ephesians 5:9
KJV says “Fruit of the Spirit.” NIV says, “Fruit of the light.”

Philippians 4:13
KJV says, “I can do all things through Christ which strengthens me.” NIV says, “I can do everything through him.”(Who are they talking about here?)

Colossians 1:2
The NIV omitted, “and from the Lord Jesus Christ.”

Colossians 2: 18
The NIV says, “What he has seen.” The KJV says, “Things he hath not seen.” A careless translation.

1 Timothy 2: 7
KJV says, “Truth in Christ.” NIV says, “Truth.” (There is only truth in Christ)

1 Timothy 3:16
NIV says “He appeared in a body.” What type of body? The KJV says, “God was manifest in the flesh.”

2 Timothy 3:17
KJV says, “That the man of God may be perfect, thoroughly furnished unto all good works.” NIV says, “So that the man of God may be thoroughly equipped for every good work.” (A soldier can be equipped for warfare, but not perfect. Only Christ brings perfection.)

Hebrews 3:6
We are “rejoicing” and not “boasting” as translated in the NIV.

Hebrews 3:18
KJV says, “To them that believed not.” NIV says, “ Not to those who disobeyed.”

Hebrews 4:12
KJV says, “The Word is quick and powerful,” not as in the NIV “quick and active.” One can be active without being powerful. It is the “Power of God,” that sets us free, not “activity.”

Hebrews 13:21
Should be “make you perfect” (KJV) not “equip” you as in the NIV. There is a vast difference. (See comments on 2 Tim 3:17)

I Peter 1:22
Should be “with a pure heart” as in KJV not just heart. NIV everyone has a heart, but only Gods children have pure hearts.

1 Peter 2:2
“Milk of the Word” is correct and easy to understand even for a child, but what does the NIV mean by spiritual milk? The emphasis should be on the Word of God, and not on milk.

2 Peter 1:21
Should be “holy men,” that is men touched by the Holy Spirit, and not “men” as translated in the NIV.

1 John 5:13
The NIV left out the last part of this verse which is important and reads, “and that ye may believe on the Name of the Son of God.”

Jude 1
The NIV left out the word “sanctified.” We are sinners who are sanctified (cleansed by the blood of Jesus, when He paid for our sins with his precious blood).

Revelation 1:11
The NIV omitted the very important Name of Jesus which reads “I AM THE ALPHA AND OMEGA, THE FIRST AND THE LAST.” This is in the original manuscripts.

Revelation 21:24
The nations “which are saved” in the KJV, and not just “the nations” as the NIV says. We need to be saved, born again of the Spirit of God.
 
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anna ~ grace

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Yeah, as long as you don't mind not having a complete Bible, and one with corruptions.
I know. For Protestants, though, they could do worse. At least it’s fairly literal, respectful, and doesn’t try to water down gender and sexuality issues. I get what you’re saying, though.
 
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Isilwen

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Ah! You hit it on the nail!

Satan's servants are ever trying to get away from the 1611 KJV because of how it was based on the MAJORITY TEXTS (5000+ existing Greek manuscripts which agree with each other).

Bible text used from Wescott & Hort's translations of 5 Greek texts that do not agree with other (NT only), are not the same Greek texts the KJV translators used at all, so there's Scripture missing using the Wescott & Hort text (i.e., NIV, NASB, NKJV, NRSV, NAB, RSV, REB, CEV, TEV, GNB, LIVING, PHILLIPS, NEW JERUSALEM, NEW CENTURY, NEW WORLD TRANSLATION). These more modern Bible versions are based on Wescott & Hort's translation of corrupted texts.

See this explanation:

Modern Bible Versions, and Westcott and Hort (27-5) – APOSTOLIC INFORMATION SERVICE


'New and Improved' does not... mean a better or more accurate Bible version. That's man's hype.

The devil is trying to distort God's written Word, and he has with many of the modern Bible versions.

You keep reading the KJV, I have no issues with that.

I'll keep reading a Bible that I can actually read. Not all of us did well with Shakespeare in High School.
 
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pescador

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Ah! You hit it on the nail!

Satan's servants are ever trying to get away from the 1611 KJV because of how it was based on the MAJORITY TEXTS (5000+ existing Greek manuscripts which agree with each other).

Bible text used from Wescott & Hort's translations of 5 Greek texts that do not agree with other (NT only), are not the same Greek texts the KJV translators used at all, so there's Scripture missing using the Wescott & Hort text (i.e., NIV, NASB, NKJV, NRSV, NAB, RSV, REB, CEV, TEV, GNB, LIVING, PHILLIPS, NEW JERUSALEM, NEW CENTURY, NEW WORLD TRANSLATION). These more modern Bible versions are based on Wescott & Hort's translation of corrupted texts.

See this explanation:

Modern Bible Versions, and Westcott and Hort (27-5) – APOSTOLIC INFORMATION SERVICE


'New and Improved' does not... mean a better or more accurate Bible version. That's man's hype.

The devil is trying to distort God's written Word, and he has with many of the modern Bible versions.

Oy vey! The King James Bible is a translation of the best texts available in the early 17th Century, nothing more and nothing less. It is based partly on earlier English translations and wasn't meant to be the final Word, as the translators themselves wrote in the preface. (Try reading it sometime.)

'New and Improved' does mean a better and more accurate Bible version. That's not "man's hype", that is reality. There are many more source texts now than ever before and a much better understanding of the ancient languages. We now have quite a few excellent translations, brought about by excellent research, evidence, and scholarship.

I just don't understand the KJVO mentality. What false religion has been created by insisting that a 410-year-old translation, ordered by a king to define his concept of Christianity, is THE Word of God?
 
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pescador

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Missing and Incorrectly Translated Verses in The NIV
By Dr. Rocco Badenhorst

Matthew 6:13
Here the NIV omits an important part of the “Lord’s Prayer, “For Thine is the kingdom, the power and the glory for ever, Amen.”

Matthew 19:17
This verse should be stated correctly as, as in the KJV “Why callest thou me good? There is none good but one, that is, God:”

Matthew 23:14
The NIV omitted this verse completely. Some of the translators of the NIV evidently did not like the word “damnation.”


Matthew 23:23
The word “faith” and the word “faithfulness” do not mean the same. The KJV of the Bible says, “By faith we are saved,” not by “faithfulness. I do not believe that “faith” and “faithfulness” have the same meaning.)

Mark 9:29.
The NIV omitted “fasting.” Our Lord Jesus fasted for 40 days and 40 nights.

Mark 13:33
The KJV says, “Watch and Pray.” It is not the same as “be on guard! Be alert!” as translated in the NIV. To be a watchful and praying Christian is paramount.

Mark 15:28
This verse was omitted from the NIV. It was a prophecy from the Old Testament proclaiming the Deity of Christ.)

Luke 4:4
Words omitted in this verse, “but by every Word of God.” All of existence was brought into being by the Word of God. Jesus IS The Word of God. (This is one of the most important verses in the Bible)

Luke 4:8
“Get thee behind me Satan,” in the KJV. Why did the NIV translators not put these words in?

Luke 6:40
“Perfect” is not the same as “fully trained,” as stated in the NIV. Jesus wants us to be perfect in Him, not “fully trained.”

Luke 5:20
Jesus did not call the sinner “friend,” as translated in the NIV. He called him, “man,” as translated in the KJV.

Luke 11:2-4
When we pray the Lord’s Prayer, we pray “Our Father which art in Heaven”. The NIV omitted the words “Our” and only mentions “Father.” Are they referring to another father? In addition, “deliver us from evil” was omitted in verse 4 by the NIV translators. Did they not see a need for deliverance?

Luke 12:31
Here again the NIV omits these important words. It should say “The kingdom of God.” The NIV says, “his kingdom.” To which kingdom are they referring?

Luke 21:19
“Patience” is a gift of the Holy Spirit — “Standing firm” is not the same.

John 4:42
The NIV omitted the “Christ” which means “Anointed One.”

John 9:35
In this particular verse, It should be “Son of God” and not, “son of man,” as the NIV translates it.

Matthew 8:29
NIV translators omitted the name, “Jesus,” thou Son of God.

John 6:47
NIV says, “he who believes.” Should be, “He who believes on Me has everlasting life.” Believing is not enough.

Acts 8:18
NIV says, “spirit – should be “Holy Spirit.” Man has a spirit also.) Which spirit are the translators of the NIV referring to ?

Acts 10:30
(NIV omitted “fasting.” Fasting is powerful for seeing answers to our needs.

Acts 8:37
NIV omitted this entire verse – it is vital to Salvation (Did the translators of the NIV feel ashamed of the Name of Jesus?

Acts 10:30
NIV omitted the word “fasting” – fasting is powerful for seeing needs being met.

Acts 22:16
NIV says “Calling on his name.” KJV says “The Name of the Lord.”

Romans 11:6
The NIV is not very clear on this verse and the KJV explains “Grace and Works.” The NIV omits, ”But if it be of works, then it is no more grace.” This is an important part of the Gospel.

11 Corinthians 7:4
KJV says, “boldness of speech.” NIV says, “I have great confidence in you.”

11 Corinthians 10:5
KJV “Casting down imaginations” is correct. NIV says, “demolish arguments.” See Isaiah 2:11-12 for the importance of casting down imaginations.

Galatians 4:7
KJV says “servant,” and not “slave,” as translated in the NIV. A servant has the choice of leaving his master and a slave does not have a choice. The importance of this translation is that we have a choice of serving Christ or of deserting Him, whereas, a slave does not have that choice.

Galatians 5:22
The NIV translators used the word “faithfulness” in place of the word ”faith.” We are saved by faith and not by being faithful.

Galatians 6:15
NIV omits “for in Christ Jesus” in this verse.

Ephesians 3:9
NIV omitted “created all things by Jesus Christ.” Revelation 22:19 warns us about taking away from the Word of God.

Ephesians 3:14
KJV says, “I bow my knees unto the Father of our Lord Jesus Christ.” NIV says, “I kneel before the Father.” (Which father are they talking about?)

Philippians 3:21
KJV says, “Vile bodies.” NIV says, “lowly bodies.” These words have different meanings. Vile means sinful and lowly means humble.

Ephesians 5:9
KJV says “Fruit of the Spirit.” NIV says, “Fruit of the light.”

Philippians 4:13
KJV says, “I can do all things through Christ which strengthens me.” NIV says, “I can do everything through him.”(Who are they talking about here?)

Colossians 1:2
The NIV omitted, “and from the Lord Jesus Christ.”

Colossians 2: 18
The NIV says, “What he has seen.” The KJV says, “Things he hath not seen.” A careless translation.

1 Timothy 2: 7
KJV says, “Truth in Christ.” NIV says, “Truth.” (There is only truth in Christ)

1 Timothy 3:16
NIV says “He appeared in a body.” What type of body? The KJV says, “God was manifest in the flesh.”

2 Timothy 3:17
KJV says, “That the man of God may be perfect, thoroughly furnished unto all good works.” NIV says, “So that the man of God may be thoroughly equipped for every good work.” (A soldier can be equipped for warfare, but not perfect. Only Christ brings perfection.)

Hebrews 3:6
We are “rejoicing” and not “boasting” as translated in the NIV.

Hebrews 3:18
KJV says, “To them that believed not.” NIV says, “ Not to those who disobeyed.”

Hebrews 4:12
KJV says, “The Word is quick and powerful,” not as in the NIV “quick and active.” One can be active without being powerful. It is the “Power of God,” that sets us free, not “activity.”

Hebrews 13:21
Should be “make you perfect” (KJV) not “equip” you as in the NIV. There is a vast difference. (See comments on 2 Tim 3:17)

I Peter 1:22
Should be “with a pure heart” as in KJV not just heart. NIV everyone has a heart, but only Gods children have pure hearts.

1 Peter 2:2
“Milk of the Word” is correct and easy to understand even for a child, but what does the NIV mean by spiritual milk? The emphasis should be on the Word of God, and not on milk.

2 Peter 1:21
Should be “holy men,” that is men touched by the Holy Spirit, and not “men” as translated in the NIV.

1 John 5:13
The NIV left out the last part of this verse which is important and reads, “and that ye may believe on the Name of the Son of God.”

Jude 1
The NIV left out the word “sanctified.” We are sinners who are sanctified (cleansed by the blood of Jesus, when He paid for our sins with his precious blood).

Revelation 1:11
The NIV omitted the very important Name of Jesus which reads “I AM THE ALPHA AND OMEGA, THE FIRST AND THE LAST.” This is in the original manuscripts.

Revelation 21:24
The nations “which are saved” in the KJV, and not just “the nations” as the NIV says. We need to be saved, born again of the Spirit of God.

This clearly shows that the King James version has quite a few errors, since it differs from one of the best, clearest, most reliable translations ever to appear. If the KJV translators had the sources that we have today most of these errors would have been translated correctly.
 
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Albion

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How easy it is to understand the KJV may be a function of what we mean by "understand." It isn't easy for people to understand, really comprehend, the whole of the Bible, no matter which translation or edition is being used.

However, the KJV is rated as being at the 12th grade reading level, so if a reader has completed high school, he should be able to understand at least what it is that's being "said" there. If not, then some "modern language" translation would probably be needed as an aide to understanding.
 
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pescador

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How easy it is to understand the KJV may be a function of what we mean by "understand." It isn't easy for people to understand, really comprehend, the whole of the Bible, no matter which translation or edition is being used.

However, the KJV is rated as being at the 12th grade reading level, so if a reader has completed high school, he should be able to understand at least what it is that being "said" there. If not, then some "modern language" translation would probably be needed as an aide to understanding.

This is a worn-out argument. Book reading levels are determined by a computer algorithm that is based on modern language; it is misleading to use it to define 17th Century Englyshe. It is absurd to expect high school seniors to accurately comprehend the accuracy of early 17th Century English when post-doctorate scholars often don't agree.

It isn't easy for people to understand, really comprehend, the whole of the Bible, no matter which translation or edition is being used, but modern Bibles have gone a long way toward conveying God's Word in 21st Century English.

Which is easier to understand...

Luke 14:8-12, KJV...
8 When thou art bidden of any man to a wedding, sit not down in the highest room; lest a more honourable man than thou be bidden of him;

9 And he that bade thee and him come and say to thee, Give this man place; and thou begin with shame to take the lowest room.

10 But when thou art bidden, go and sit down in the lowest room; that when he that bade thee cometh, he may say unto thee, Friend, go up higher: then shalt thou have worship in the presence of them that sit at meat with thee.

11 For whosoever exalteth himself shall be abased; and he that humbleth himself shall be exalted.

12 Then said he also to him that bade him, When thou makest a dinner or a supper, call not thy friends, nor thy brethren, neither thy kinsmen, nor thy rich neighbours; lest they also bid thee again, and a recompence be made thee.

Luke 14:8-12, NRSV...

“When you are invited by someone to a wedding banquet, do not sit down at the place of honor, in case someone more distinguished than you has been invited by your host; and the host who invited both of you may come and say to you, ‘Give this person your place,’ and then in disgrace you would start to take the lowest place. But when you are invited, go and sit down at the lowest place, so that when your host comes, he may say to you, ‘Friend, move up higher’; then you will be honored in the presence of all who sit at the table with you. For all who exalt themselves will be humbled, and those who humble themselves will be exalted.”

He said also to the one who had invited him, “When you give a luncheon or a dinner, do not invite your friends or your brothers or your relatives or rich neighbors, in case they may invite you in return, and you would be repaid. But when you give a banquet, invite the poor, the crippled, the lame, and the blind. And you will be blessed, because they cannot repay you, for you will be repaid at the resurrection of the righteous.”

The answer to my question is obvious! KJV readers must re-translate the KJV Englyshe into the language that all of us use in our thinking, reading, and writing every day of our lives. IMHO, if somebody spoke to you in early-17th Century Englyshe, you would wonder what was wrong with them; why they were so affected and/or nuts.

Every single post I have read, including yours, is written in the language in use in the 21st Century. Why? Because nobody is interested in obfuscation...
 
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This is a worn-out argument. Book reading levels are determined by a computer algorithm that is based on modern language; it is misleading to use it to define 17th Century Englyshe.

And I think that the claim that 'thees' and 'thous' and some few other archaic words make the KJV incomprehensible is a worn-out argument.

Almost ANYONE with average intelligence and schooling can understand it if given a little help--by even online references. But, oh, the griping we routinely hear about it supposedly being impossible for 21st century people to understand the KJV!

When it comes to these "modern language" works, most are monstrosities, and hardly a one is more easily understood than the KJV; they merely are "dumbed down" with less descriptive and/or meaningful words.
 
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