That's interesting, thank you for explaining this to me. But I've got to ask, how to do you come to that conclusion after reading Romans 1:26-27? Isn't Paul talking about men and women abandoning natural relationships for unnatural?
I think that same-sex attraction is natural, psychology has done a lot of research, and the research has concluded that homosexuality is just as naturally occuring as heterosexuality and homosexuality. It is not a philia (disorder revolving around physical pleasure), nor even just about having sex; it is about the same thing as heterosexuality, finding a partner in life just like heterosexual people. Basically, the only difference between homosexuality and heterosexuality is that in one you are attracted to your same-sex, and the other one it is the opposite sex. It is not anymore perverted, depraved, etc. than heterosexuality.* The men and women who have same-sex attraction are not abandoning their natural relationships because same-sex attraction is what is natural to them.
*It is not a philia (disorder revolving around physical pleasure), nor even just about having sex; it is about the same thing as heterosexuality, finding a partner in life just like heterosexual people. Basically, the only difference between homosexuality and heterosexuality is that in one you are attracted to your same-sex, and the other one it is the opposite sex. It is not anymore perverted, depraved, etc. than heterosexuality.
The passage in Romans actually starts in verse 18, which you are correct about, but it's really read as one long passage instead of what many people actually do and break it up into multiple parts. We have to remember that scripture was not written with headers, chapter, verses, and to a specific audience for a specific problem. Paul wrote his letter to the church in Rome who were having issues between the Gentiles and Jews in the church about the law, sin, righteous, etc.
What Paul is doing in this passage is uniting the church by helping them find common ground, he says in the first passage, "The gospel was preached first to the Jews, and then to the Gentiles, For in the gospel the righteousness of God is revealed just as it is written: 'The righteous will live by faith.' Beginning in verse 18, goes into what it looks like to not live by faith, by contrasting how they (the church) are all distinct from those not in the church. Verse 18 is actually parallel to the verse above, which you can see if you remove the verses and the headers "For in it the
righteousness of God is revealed through faith for faith; as it is written, “The one who is righteous will live by faith. For the
wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and wickedness of those who by their wickedness suppress the truth." Paul uses the same word "apokaluptetai", in both passages.
The remainder of the passage is just read as cause and effect, he's explaining how the wrath of God plays out. These people ignored what they could about God, so they worshiped idols (19-23), because they worship idols instead of God, they had impure hearts (24-25), because of their impure hearts they were inflamed by passions and temptations because of their hearts and chose to act on them (26-27), and because of these actions this lead to all wickedness in society (28-32).
Then Paul goes into chapter 2 and address the church again saying "Just because you have truth, but go around doing the same things, you are ultimately no different than them, because God will repay everyone according to their own deeds, which he then transitions into talking about the law, saying that what ultimately matter is following the law and not just believing in it, because even though you do not have it, showing that when they do it, it is written on their hearts. He then address the Jews saying that you aren't superior to either of them just because you have the law. It's sort of a similar process as in chapter 1: saved gentiles you are not better than unsaved gentiles because you have the truth, and Jews you are not superior because you have the law.Then in chapter 3 (Paul even uses the word superior) he gets into why no one is superior, and because ultimately no one is actually righteous.