To ANY pre-tribber, the term "the righteous" applies to all believers of all times. But "the church" does not. So, altough a pre-tribber might call any saint from any period "righteous," he would never use the term "the church" for any tribulation believer, nor would he call one of them "we," or "us." And this is EXACTLY what Irenaeus did. He changed his terms for tribulation believers from "we" or "us" to "they, "them," or "those," and he changed the term "the church" to the generic terms of "the righteous" or "saints." I have analyzed every place where he spoke of people going through the tribulation, and he applied this rule in EVRY case. He did not make even one exception to his application of this rule.
I too am unable to make sense of the foregoing.
"To ANY pre-tribber, the term "the righteous" applies to all believers of all times."
"...he changed the term "the church" to the generic terms of "the righteous" or "saints.""
That is, he changed the term "the church" to "the righteous", which means all believers of all times.
If they are all believers of all times, how do we know specifically that they are tribulation believers, and not non-tribulation believers?
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