Here's the most critical question for you ...

BCsenior

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Sin’s Power Is Broken – is the heading for Romans 6 (New Living Translation)
6 so that sin might lose its power in our lives
6 we are no longer slaves to sin
7 we were set free from the power of sin
10 he died once to break the power of sin
11 consider yourselves to be dead to the power of sin
12 do not let sin control the way you live; do not give in to sinful desires
13 do not let any part of your body become an instrument of evil to serve sin
(a la Mark 9:43)
14 sin is no longer your master
16 you can be a slave to sin, which leads to death, or …
16 you can choose to obey God, which leads to righteous living
18 you are free from your slavery to sin
19 you must give yourselves to be slaves to righteous living so that you will become holy
22 you are free from the power of sin
22 do those things that lead to holiness and result in eternal life
23 for the wages of sin is death
All of the above are direct quotes from the New Living Translation (NLT).
The time is running very short for you to REPENT and get with God’s will for your life!
Repenting of a sin (this what the Lord requires of you):
• have sorrow over doing it
• confess it before the Lord
• ask the Lord for forgiveness
• stop doing it
 
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Marvin Knox

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In conclusion - last post on this for sure:
That's exactly my question; what other thing can he do that will bring condemnation since you believe a believer never can do anything that will bring condemnation? If you're going to use that as a reason for discounting circular reasoning, then you need to provide a valid example(s) of such.
I obviously (and as I have told you before) do not believe that a believer can or will do anything which will bring him into condemnation. I believe Jesus about that.

My example was merely to show you how illogical a particular conclusion which you stated was.

You said the following in an effort to prove that my original deduction was circular.
Your proposition X (no believer will accept mark) is true because of your premise Y (no believer ever comes into condemnation). In other words, X is true because Y is true. But the reverse is also true in that Y is true because X is true; i.e. no believer is condemned because no believer will ever accept the mark. Your argument is thus circular and fallacious.
No believer taking the mark of the beast is true because the original premise (the clear statement of our Lord) is true and that indeed is my argument.

But the reverse is not necessarily true just presented as a logical argument. It is not a true conclusion that no believer can come into condemnation simply because it is true that no believer will come into condemnation for taking the mark of the beast.

That is the conclusion you come to which causes you to charge me with circular reasoning.

An off the wall example might be if I made a correct logical construct such as:
I will never be seen in public without clothes. (Y) Therefore I will never be stripped naked by thugs and shoved out into the streets to be seen without clothes.(X) That is a perfectly logical construct.

But you are saying that the following is a logical construct (and it isn't):
I will never be stripped naked by thugs and shoved out into the streets to be seen with clothes. Therefore I will never be seen in public without clothes.

There are any number of other reasons we could name why I could be seen in public with clothes. The "thug" example is but one. Just because X is true does not mean (as you say) Y is true.

You accused me of circular logic. I said it was not circular logic but plain old good logic. Yours, on the other hand, was not.

Circular reasoning (often begging the question) is a logical fallacy that occurs when the conclusion of an argument is used as a premise of that same argument; i.e., the premises would not work if the conclusion weren't already assumed to be true.

My presentation did not meet that criteria but was rather a simple logical construct.

Getting back to the original situation concerning the mark of the beast - we both start with an assumption in stating our premises. That much is true.

My assumption is that Jesus was truthful and forthright when He said that a believer would never come into condemnation. Your assumption is that Jesus was not being truthful and forthright.

Therefore our conclusions about believers taking the mark of the beast are radically different.

You can believe what you want and I will believe what I want about the premise. There isn’t anything I can do about that.

But my argument is valid assuming my premise. Where as yours is not even assuming your premise..

Examples of the two arguments go like this..

MINE = Believers can’t go to Hell. Everyone who takes the mark goes to Hell. Therefore no believers take the mark.

YOURS = Believers can go to Hell. Everyone who takes the mark goes to Hell. Therefore some believers take the mark.
If you do reply one last time, please offer your explanation of how the prodigal son was made alive again. If I'm wrong in my interpretation, I would like to be informed of such but I cannot think of any other interpretation other than the one I proffered.
I don’t have a lot of time for this. But here goes in short form.

In Luke 15 Jesus was showing “non-sinners” (in their own eyes) why they shouldn’t be surprised that He would be so interested in seeking and working with “sinners”. Instead they should be happy about it. He told them a series of parables to show why it was not only perfectly normal that He should be so interested in sinners but why it was really to be expected of Him.

In the first parable – God is a shepherd who lost a sheep (not a literal shepherd obviously). The sinners are a lost sheep (not literal sheep obviously). The friends and neighbors whom He expects to rejoice with Him are the “non-sinners”.

In the second parable – God is a woman who lost a coin (not a literal woman obviously). The sinners are a lost coin (not a literal coin obviously). The friends and neighbors who were called to rejoice are the “non-sinners (the Pharisees and such) whom He called to rejoice with Him when He found the coin.

In the third parable – God is the father of two sons (not a literal father obviously). The older son is representative of the “non-sinners”. The younger son is representative of the “sinners“. The older son has no issues with the Father. He does not need redemption. But the second does have issues with his father as shown. The younger son (the “sinners”) needs redemption.

The younger son repents and returns and the father rejoices (as God does when any sinner repents). He expects the son who was never in need of redemption to rejoice and instead they grouse about how well he treated the redeemed son.

Now – this is a parable to teach us about the poor attitude of the Pharisees and the teachers. It is not a parable about the prodigal son.

The sinners Jesus was associating with were not literal “sons” of God. They were obviously not saved as you suggest. The Pharisees and teachers for darn sure weren’t saved sons of God. God was not their father. They were – until the work of Christ is done and they exercised saving faith (if ever) children of their father the devil.

As you did with the mark of the beast example – you make certain unwarranted assumptions and base your conclusions on those wrong conclusions.

This is not a story to illustrate any truth about eternal security or lack thereof. I was never meant to be taken that way.

“Dead” and “lost” are merely terms used in the parables to display the general relationship of sinners to God - the shepherd, the woman, and the father. They were never meant to be carried over into a teaching about loss of salvation for the adopted sons of God.

The younger son was never literally dead any more than God was a father to the Pharisees or the sinners were coins or sheep. These are parables.

I hope this helps. But I doubt very much that you have been persuaded about the eternal security issue – even though you should have been really, really, convicted about your poor logic skills. :)

I don't have time to proof read this. So I'm just going to hit post reply and leave it up to you to screen my meaning etc.
 
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Oldmantook

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Circular reasoning (often begging the question) is a logical fallacy that occurs when the conclusion of an argument is used as a premise of that same argument; i.e., the premises would not work if the conclusion weren't already assumed to be true.
I understand the logic behind it as what you say is indeed accurate and descriptive of circular reasoning however aren't you making the assumption as you say that "the conclusion weren't already assumed to be true?"
No believer will ever take the mark. Therefore no believer is condemned.
In the above, your conclusion (no believer is condemned) is "already assumed to be true" is it not? However IF your conclusion is not true by proving that under certain circumstances, believers are indeed condemned then your conclusion is not valid to begin with and you are therefore using circular reasoning.
The Bible does certainly say that there is no condemnation for those who are in Christ (Rom 8:1). Bibles using the Textus Receptus as the basis for translation have the added clause: "...who do not walk according to the flesh, but according to the Spirit." In other words, those Christians who do not come under condemnation are those believers who specifically are not walking according to the flesh. Furthermore, later in v.4 the same exact qualification is repeated: "...so that the righteousness of the Law should be fulfilled in us not walking according to the flesh, but according to the Spirit." Therefore fulfilling the law and not being condemned is only met by the condition of believers who choose to walk according to the Spirit and not according to the flesh in their lives. Not all Christians choose to live sanctified lives and eschew living according to the flesh. That is why I already pointed out Paul's warning to you in Rom 8:13 that Paul states that those brethren who live according to the flesh WILL DIE as they do fall into condemnation since they do not meet the requirements of v.4. AND I also already demonstrated to you that the Golden Chain of Salvation in Rom 8:30 which you cited, ain't so golden or secure after all as testified to by Paul's observation of those called Galatians in Gal 1:6 who despite being called by the grace of Christ - still deserted Christ. Scripture interprets scripture, does it not?

In Luke 15 Jesus was showing “non-sinners” (in their own eyes) why they shouldn’t be surprised that He would be so interested in seeking and working with “sinners”. Instead they should be happy about it. He told them a series of parables to show why it was not only perfectly normal that He should be so interested in sinners but why it was really to be expected of Him.
No, these parables were directed to Pharisees/teachers of the Law who saw themselves as God's chosen people - specifically to reveal to them the true sinful nature of their hearts and their own need for repentance and not anything at all as to why Jesus was welcoming sinners in his midst. In other words they were judging Jesus for mingling with the sinners yet not realizing how much of a sinner in need of repentance they themselves were. Hence Jesus directed these parables at God's adopted and chosen people calling for them to repent and not at the unsaved.

n the first parable – God is a shepherd who lost a sheep (not a literal shepherd obviously). The sinners are a lost sheep (not literal sheep obviously). The friends and neighbors whom He expects to rejoice with Him are the “non-sinners
You go to great lengths to ignore the fact that this sheep was a believer because it belonged to the other flock of "ninety-nine righteous persons who do not need to repent" v7. Yet this sheep strayed away and became "lost" and Jesus referred to it as a "sinner" in need of "repentance" v.7. When this sinner repents is he/she "found" and the angels in heaven rejoice. This parable clearly cannot be referring to an unsaved person who is lost but repents and comes to salvation because an unsaved person is never a part of the flock of the other ninety-nine RIGHTEOUS persons who do not need to repent. You also ignore the fact that Jesus defined the friends and neighbors not as the "non-sinners" which you claim but as the angels in heaven v.7.

In the second parable – God is a woman who lost a coin (not a literal woman obviously). The sinners are a lost coin (not a literal coin obviously). The friends and neighbors who were called to rejoice are the “non-sinners (the Pharisees and such) whom He called to rejoice with Him when He found the coin.
Similar to the first parable. The coin belonged to the woman in the same way that believers belong to the Father. Note also that the Pharisees as God's chosen people originally belonged to the Father but became lost as a result of the hardness of their hearts among other things as well. The coin became lost but friends and neighbors join in the rejoicing when the coin which belonged to the woman is found. "IN THE SAME WAY'" - Jesus compares the friends and neighbors to the angels in heaven who rejoice when the the lost coin that belonged to the woman is found.

Now – this is a parable to teach us about the poor attitude of the Pharisees and the teachers. It is not a parable about the prodigal son.
If it is not about the prodigal then pray tell why does Jesus make it a point to repeat himself twice when specifically referring to the prodigal as being dead and is alive again? Jesus not only repeats himself but he uses this description of the prodigal as the concluding statement of this parable in v.30 from which we may conclude is the main point of this parable.

The sinners Jesus was associating with were not literal “sons” of God. They were obviously not saved as you suggest. The Pharisees and teachers for darn sure weren’t saved sons of God. God was not their father. They were – until the work of Christ is done and they exercised saving faith (if ever) children of their father the devil.
The example of the prodigal was used by Jesus to show the Pharisees that like the prodigal, they had an inheritance as God's chosen people. Yet like the prodigal, they squandered their inheritance when they hardened their hearts against the Father/Jesus. In similar fashion, believers upon regeneration are adopted into the Father's family and become His children. Therefore the parable of the prodigal has essentially a double application - to the religious leaders of Jesus' time as will as application in our present church age. If parables such as this don't apply to the saints today then they have no business being used as sermon/teaching illustration in the body of Christ today.

“Dead” and “lost” are merely terms used in the parables to display the general relationship of sinners to God - the shepherd, the woman, and the father. They were never meant to be carried over into a teaching about loss of salvation for the adopted sons of God.
As I already wrote above, the sheep who strayed from the flock of 99 persons who need no repentance clearly means that the one sheep needed no repentance since he/she belonged to that flock. The only persons who are in no need of repentance are BELIEVERS in an abiding relationship with God. In no way, shape, or form can one make the unwarranted assumption that the one sheep was an unsaved sinner for unsaved sinners definitely do have the need for repentance. Therefore I reject your claim that “Dead” and “lost” are merely terms used in the parables to display the general relationship of sinners to God." You go to great lengths to ignore the details in order to maintain your position.

The younger son was never literally dead any more than God was a father to the Pharisees or the sinners were coins or sheep. These are parables.
Yes these are indeed parables which happen to be the primary teaching vehicle that Jesus employed to teach spiritual truths to his disciples/followers, yet in a way that its meaning remained hidden from those with hardened hearts. Therefore it behooves us to pay attention. The Pharisees had a very detailed systematic theology of their own yet they had hardened hearts so what good did their theology do them when it came to properly applying the teachings of Jesus' parables to their own lives? They believe their theology more than they believed Jesus. Are Christians capable of doing the same thing today? Just saying. :)
Jesus specifically stated TWICE that the prodigal was dead and made alive AGAIN. I specifically asked you to offer your own explanation as to how someone can be made alive again. If you take it as just a minor issue why did Jesus make it a point to repeat himself and conclude the parable with that statement? I take your non-response to mean that you will not or cannot offer an explanation of your own. That of course is your prerogative but in my opinion it only serves to further weaken your stance as all Scripture must be reconciled with one's doctrine.
 
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