GOD'S PEOPLE ARE TO BE A ROYAL PRIESTHOOD?

[Leaf473]

Yes I would rather you address my posts section by section and scripture by scripture as I do with your posts. This way it helps discussion and reduces opportunity for misunderstanding and examines the detail agreeing with the scripture admonitions of John 3:19-21 that says [19], And this is the condemnation, that light is come into the world, and men loved darkness rather than light, because their deeds were evil. [20], For every one that does evil hates the light, neither comes to the light, lest his deeds should be reproved. [21], But he that does truth comes to the light, that his deeds may be made manifest, that they are worked in God. We should not be afraid therefore to come to the light of Gods' Word and examine what we believe in detail in case we might have a misunderstanding of the scriptures. It is the detail of the Word of God as we are prayerfully guided by His Spirit the leads us into the truth of Gods' Word *John 14:26; John 16:13; John 17:17; John 7:17; John 8:31-32; 1 John 2:27. If you could start with post # 298; post # 299 and post # 314 it would be helpful. I did spend some time in these posts to be a help to you and the discussion here.

Take Care.

Okay, I will return to Post 298 soon.

 

[LoveGodsWord]

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Yes, that's the answer, Perfect tense.
I'm having difficulty following what you're saying here. Maybe you're saying something way off base, or maybe you're seeing something in the verse that I'm not seeing.

It sounds like you're saying that there is this completed action in the past. But then whether or not it is completed is conditional on something happening in the present

I didn't see the phrase "present tense" until post 314. This was confirmed using the search function on my browser.

I had asked you what the tense was according to the website that I had linked.

That website does not give "past tense" as an option.

Based on that website, one or two words would have been fine for the answer. If an answer is embedded in a long post, I may ask for clarification.

I think it is critical that it be "perfect tense" as opposed to a "past tense" which is not listed as an option either at Bible hub or in the Greek manual I consulted.

So I kept asking because I didn't want our discussion to end with you thinking that I hadn't read your posts.

Take your time and re-read what is posted to you. I will try and break it down so it is easier to follow if it may be helpful. Comparison in my earlier posts was not just between Galatians 5:14 but also to Romans 13:8 applied to contexts of love resulting in the law being fulfilled. Future ongoing action of the law being fulfilled is conditional to loving our neighbor as our self (context). The perfect tense in Greek is used to describe a completed action which produced results which are still in effect. The following link might be helpful for you *see Greek tenses explained.

For example Galatians 5:14 with the tenses applied with context reads "FOR THE ENTIRE LAW IS FULFILLED "IN THIS" [that is the the law being completed - perfect tense which is the meaning and grammar application of πεπλήρωται (is fulfilled) in what is about to be said as follows] "YOU SHALL LOVE" Ἀγαπήσεις [verb is future indicative active second person singular talking to us]. This means the law is fulfilled "IN THIS" YOU SHALL LOVE YOUR NEIGHBOR AS OUR SELF."

The same ideas as shown above are also shown directly from Romans 13:8 in a slightly different way but also agreeing with the above grammar tenses and context of the scripture provided in Galatians 5:14.

For example in Romans 13:8 Owe no man any thing, "BUT TO LOVE" [this is a verb that is present infinitive active. This means that "to love" is participating in the result to fulfill the law]; ONE ANOTHER ἀλλήλους [personal pronoun of who we are to love]. "HE THAT LOVES [is a verb that is a present participle active] HAS FULFILLED [perfect indicative active - completed action] to THE LAW [which is completed when we love another]. So as context is applied it is when we love another or our neighbor the law is fulfilled. So the thought here is that love is not separate from Gods' law, it is the action that fulfills God's law (compare the context of Romans 13:9-10)

All the above demonstrates from your two verses you provided that love is not separate from God's law it is expressed in obedience to Gods' law from the heart which is God's new covenant promise *Hebrews 8:10-12 from Jeremiah 31:31-34 and Ezekiel 36:24-27. We have not even started talking about the scripture contexts of Romans 13:8-10 which proves this further. We have also not even discussed the very words of Jesus in Matthew 22:36-40 where he states on these two great commandments of love hang all the law and the prophets; or that of James in Jame 2:8-12 and John in 1 John 5:2-3 who all agree with Paul that love is not separated from God's law it is expressed through obeying it. Love is expressed in obedience to Gods' law in those who believe and follow God's Word according to the scriptures *Romans 3:31.

Hope this is more helpful.

 

[Fervent]

If the Royal Priesthood is holy and holy means to be without sin and obedient to Gods Word if we are practicing known unrepentant sin then are we a part of the Royal Priesthood?

I'm going to stop you there. Holy doesn't mean to be without sin and obedient. It means to be set apart for a purpose.

Believers are set apart for the purpose of being purified by God, in order to be redeemed. We are holy through Christ and Christ alone, and our "obedience" can only serve to spoil the perfect work.

The "work" of the gospel is to rest in Christ, to die to the strivings of the flesh to earn a righteousness we can never attain.

 

[LoveGodsWord]

I'm going to stop you there. Holy doesn't mean to be without sin and obedient. It means to be set apart for a purpose.

Believers are set apart for the purpose of being purified by God, in order to be redeemed. We are holy through Christ and Christ alone, and our "obedience" can only serve to spoil the perfect work.

The "work" of the gospel is to rest in Christ, to die to the strivings of the flesh to earn a righteousness we can never attain.

Can't stop God's Word. Yes the Greek Word Holy means to be set apart but it also means to be morally blameless. We are set apart as God's Royal Priesthood according to the scriptures to be morally blameless or without sin.

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1 Peter 1:15-16 [15], But as he which has called you is holy [G40], so be you holy [G40] in all manner of conversation;[16], Because it is written, Be you holy [G40]; for I am holy [G40].

1 Peter 2:5 You also, as lively stones, are built up a spiritual house, an holy [G40] priesthood, to offer up spiritual sacrifices, acceptable to God by Jesus Christ.

1 Peter 2:9 But you are a chosen generation, a royal priesthood, an holy [G40] nation, a peculiar people; that you should show forth the praises of him who has called you out of darkness into his marvelous light

2 Peter 1:21 For the prophecy came not in old time by the will of man: but holy [G40] men of God spoke as they were moved by the Holy Ghost.

Ephesians 5:27 That he might present it to himself a glorious church, not having spot, or wrinkle, or any such thing; but that it should be holy [G40] and without blemish

2 Peter 3:11 Seeing then that all these things shall be dissolved, what manner of persons ought you to be in all holy [G40] conversation and godliness.

Revelation 22:11 He that is unjust, let him be unjust still: and he which is filthy, let him be filthy still: and he that is righteous, let him be righteous still: and he that is holy [G40], let him be holy [G40] still.

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Hebrew and Greek Dictionaries w/TVM, Strong - G40
ἅγιος (hágios | hag'-ee-os) Derivation: from ἅγος (an awful thing) (compare G53, G2282);
Strong's: sacred physically, pure, morally blameless or religious, ceremonially, consecrated
KJV: —(most) holy (one, thing), saint. See: G53 See: G2282 Cognate Group: G42 (holiness), G41 (holiness), G37 (hallow), G38 (holiness), G40 (holy)

Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament, Thayer - G40
G40 — ἅγιος In a moral sense, pure, sinless, upright, holy: 1Pet 1:16 (Lev 19:2; 11:44); 1Co 7:34; δίκαιος καί ἅγιος, of John the Baptist, Mark 6:20; ἅγιος καί δίκαιος, of Christ, Acts 3:14; distinctively of him, Rev 3:7; 6:10; of God pre-eminently, 1Pet 1:15; John 17:11; ἅγιαι ἀναστροφαί, 2Pet 3:11; νόμος and ἐντολή, i. e. containing nothing exceptionable, Rom 7:12; φίλημα, such a kiss as is a sign of the purest love, 1Thes 5:26; 1Co 16:20; 2Co 13:12; Rom 16:16. On the phrase τό ἅγιον πνεῦμα and τό πνεῦμα τό ἅγιον, see πνεῦμα, 4 a. Cf. Diestel, Die Heiligkeit Gottes, in Jahrbb. f. deutsch. Theol. iv., p. 1ff; (Baudissin, Stud. z. Semitisch. Religionsgesch. Heft ii., p. 3ff; Delitzsch in Herzog edition 2, see 714ff; especially) Cremer, Wörterbuch, 4te Aufl., p. 32ff (translation of 2nd edition, p. 84ff; Oehler in Herzog 19:618ff; Zezschwitz, Profangräcität as above with, p. 15ff; Trench, § lxxxviii; Campbell, Dissertations, diss. vi., part iv.; especially Schmidt, chapter 181).

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According to Matthew 11:28-30 we enter into the gospel rest of Jesus as we believe and follow what God's Word says (learn of Him and take His yoke upon us).

Hope this is helpful.

 

[Fervent]

Yes the Greek Word Holy means to be set apart but it also means to be morally blameless. We are set apart as God's Royal Priesthood according to the scriptures to be morally blameless or without sin.

1 Peter 1:15-16 [15], But as he which has called you is holy [G40], so be you holy [G40] in all manner of conversation;[16], Because it is written, Be you holy [G40]; for I am holy [G40].

1 Peter 2:5 You also, as lively stones, are built up a spiritual house, an holy [G40] priesthood, to offer up spiritual sacrifices, acceptable to God by Jesus Christ.

1 Peter 2:9 But you are a chosen generation, a royal priesthood, an holy [G40] nation, a peculiar people; that you should show forth the praises of him who has called you out of darkness into his marvelous light

2 Peter 1:21 For the prophecy came not in old time by the will of man: but holy [G40] men of God spoke as they were moved by the Holy Ghost.

Ephesians 5:27 That he might present it to himself a glorious church, not having spot, or wrinkle, or any such thing; but that it should be holy [G40] and without blemish

2 Peter 3:11 Seeing then that all these things shall be dissolved, what manner of persons ought you to be in all holy [G40] conversation and godliness.

Revelation 22:11 He that is unjust, let him be unjust still: and he which is filthy, let him be filthy still: and he that is righteous, let him be righteous still: and he that is holy [G40], let him be holy [G40] still.

.......................

Hebrew and Greek Dictionaries w/TVM, Strong - G40
ἅγιος (hágios | hag'-ee-os) Derivation: from ἅγος (an awful thing) (compare G53, G2282);
Strong's: sacred physically, pure, morally blameless or religious, ceremonially, consecrated
KJV: —(most) holy (one, thing), saint. See: G53 See: G2282 Cognate Group: G42 (holiness), G41 (holiness), G37 (hallow), G38 (holiness), G40 (holy)


Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament, Thayer - G40
G40 — ἅγιος In a moral sense, pure, sinless, upright, holy: 1Pet 1:16 (Lev 19:2; 11:44); 1Co 7:34; δίκαιος καί ἅγιος, of John the Baptist, Mark 6:20; ἅγιος καί δίκαιος, of Christ, Acts 3:14; distinctively of him, Rev 3:7; 6:10; of God pre-eminently, 1Pet 1:15; John 17:11; ἅγιαι ἀναστροφαί, 2Pet 3:11; νόμος and ἐντολή, i. e. containing nothing exceptionable, Rom 7:12; φίλημα, such a kiss as is a sign of the purest love, 1Thes 5:26; 1Co 16:20; 2Co 13:12; Rom 16:16. On the phrase τό ἅγιον πνεῦμα and τό πνεῦμα τό ἅγιον, see πνεῦμα, 4 a. Cf. Diestel, Die Heiligkeit Gottes, in Jahrbb. f. deutsch. Theol. iv., p. 1ff; (Baudissin, Stud. z. Semitisch. Religionsgesch. Heft ii., p. 3ff; Delitzsch in Herzog edition 2, see 714ff; especially) Cremer, Wörterbuch, 4te Aufl., p. 32ff (translation of 2nd edition, p. 84ff; Oehler in Herzog 19:618ff; Zezschwitz, Profangräcität as above with, p. 15ff; Trench, § lxxxviii; Campbell, Dissertations, diss. vi., part iv.; especially Schmidt, chapter 181).

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Hope this is helpful.

Morally blameless, yes. On account of Christ, whose righteousness we are clothed with.

 

[LoveGodsWord]

Morally blameless, yes. On account of Christ, whose righteousness we are clothed with.

Yes and no. The scriptures that were supplied in the post you are quoting from are in application and context to the saints, God's Church and the Royal Priesthood. So you are wrong here. We only have God's forgiveness and righteousness as we believe and follow God's Word. God's salvation is from sin according to the scriptures and not a license to continue practicing known unrepentant sin *see 1 John 3:4-9; John 8:31-32. According to the scriptures if we continue practicing known unrepentant sin once we have been given a knowledge of the truth of Gods' Word we are in danger of the judgement according to Acts of the Apostles 17:30 and Hebrews 10:26-31.

 

[Fervent]

Yes and no. The scriptures that were supplied in the post you are quoting from are in application and context to the saints, God's Church and the Royal Priesthood. So you are wrong here. God's salvation is from sin according to the scriptures and not a license to continue practicing known unrepentant sin *see 1 John 3:4-9; John 8:31-32. According to the scriptures if we continue practicing known unrepentant sin once we have been given a knowledge of the truth of Gods' Word we are in danger of the judgement according to Acts of the Apostles 17:30 and Hebrews 10:26-31.

How can one dead to sin continue in it any longer?

You're tilting at a windmill that's more likely to produce self-righteousness than Godly righteousness.

 

[LoveGodsWord]

How can one dead to sin continue in it any longer? You're tilting at a windmill that's more likely to produce self-righteousness than Godly righteousness.

To be dead to sin means to not be knowingly practicing sin (Romans 6:1-23). God's salvation is from sin not to continue practicing sin *Matthew 9:12-13; John 8:31-32. The latter is a false teaching according to the scriptures and will see many out of God's kingdom *see 1 John 2:3-4; Matthew 5:17-28; 1 John 3:4-10; Revelation 12:17; Revelation 14:12; Revelation 22:14. Unless we are born again into God's new covenant promise to love *Hebrews 8:10-12 from Jeremiah 31:31-34 and Ezekiel 36:24-27 we cannot enter into the kingdom of Heaven *John 3:3-7

 

[Fervent]

To be dead to sin means to not be knowingly practicing unrepentant sin (Romans 6:1-23). God's salvation is from sin not to continue practicing sin *Matthew 9:12-13; John 8:31-32. The latter is a false teaching according to the scriptures and will see many out of God's kingdom *see 1 John 2:3-4; Matthew 5:17-28; 1 John 3:4-10; Revelation 12:17; Revelation 14:12; Revelation 22:14. Unless we are born again we cannot enter into the kingdom of Heaven *John 3:3-7

Sure, but...who is teaching this false teaching?

Salvation comes via faith, and remains via faith. Grace enables us not to sin. In fact, if you are born again sin is revolting. Christ alone, by faith alone is sufficient for righteousness.

 

[LoveGodsWord]

Sure, but...who is teaching this false teaching?

According to the scriptures we are saved by grace through faith and not of ourselves it is a gift of God and not of works lest any man should boast *Ephesians 2:8-9. Obedience to God's words are not how we are saved it is the fruit of genuine faith of one that is already been given Gods promise of salvation and the fruit of God's work in us *Philippians 2:13 as we believe and follow his word *John 10:26-27. If our faith has no fruit it is dead *James 2:18-20; 26 and our tree will be cast down and thrown into the fire *Matthew 3:10; 7:19-20; 13:49-50; Hebrews 10:26-27. Therefore we do not abolish God's law through faith like some people teach but God's law is established in the heart by faith that works by love *Romans 3:31; 1 John 5:3-4; Romans 13:8-10. According to the scriptures, sin (breaking God' commandments and not believing and following God's Word) is the difference between the children of God and the children of the devil *1 John 3:6-10; 1 John 2:3-4; Revelation 12:17; Revelation 14:12; Revelation 22:14. At the second coming Christs reward is with him *Revelation 22:12. In answer to your question therefore anyone who teaches you that you can have saving faith without the fruit of faith which is obedience to God's Word is teaching a false doctrine. According to the scriptures this is the dead faith of devils *James 2:17-26. By their fruits you shall know them *Matthew 7:18-21

 

[Fervent]

According to the scriptures we are saved by grace through faith and not of ourselves it is a gift of God and not of works lest any man should boast *Ephesians 2:8-9. Obedience to God's words are not how we are saved it is the fruit of genuine faith of one that is already been given Gods promise of salvation and the fruit of God's work in us *Philippians 2:13 as we believe and follow his word *John 10:26-27. If our faith has no fruit it is dead *James 2:18-20; 26 and our tree will be cast down and thrown into the fire *Matthew 3:10; 7:19-20; 13:49-50; Hebrews 10:26-27. Therefore we do not abolish God's law through faith like some people teach but God's law is established in the heart by faith that works by love *Romans 3:31; 1 John 5:3-4; Romans 13:8-10. According to the scriptures, sin (breaking God' commandments and not believing and following God's Word) is the difference between the children of God and the children of the devil *1 John 3:6-10; 1 John 2:3-4; Revelation 12:17; Revelation 14:12; Revelation 22:14. At the second coming Christs reward is with him *Revelation 22:12. In answer to your question therefore anyone who teaches you that you can have saving faith without the fruit of faith which is obedience to God's Word. According to the scriptures this is the dead faith of devils *James 2:17-26. By their fruits you shall know them *Matthew 7:18-21

And what is the solution to dead faith? Certainly not dead works! So why concern ourselves with obedience, as if the tail wags the dog? Preach the death, buriel, and resurrection of Christ and inspire faith, obedience will take care of itself.

 

[LoveGodsWord]

And what is the solution to dead faith? Certainly not dead works! So why concern ourselves with obedience, as if the tail wags the dog? Preach the death, buriel, and resurrection of Christ and inspire faith, obedience will take care of itself.

What do you think the meaning of Matthew 9:12-13 is and the Gospel lessons of Matthew 8:8? How do the above scriptures in your view relate to John 8:31-36; Philippians 2:13; Colossians 2:6 and 2 Peter 1:3-4?

 

[Fervent]

What do you think the meaning of Matthew 9:12-13 is and the Gospel lessons of Matthew 8:8? How do the above scriptures in your view relate to John 8:31-36?

Your vending machine approach to Scripture simply will not do!

Look, if you sincerely want to discuss Jesus' response to the Pharisee's in Matthew 9, we can talk about it especially as it relates to His healing the paralytic. But that requires examining the narrative of Matthew, not pulling out 2 verses, deciding a meaning, and then slapping it together with some other verses.

 

[LoveGodsWord]

Your vending machine approach to Scripture simply will not do!

Look, if you sincerely want to discuss Jesus' response to the Pharisee's in Matthew 9, we can talk about it especially as it relates to His healing the paralytic. But that requires examining the narrative of Matthew, not pulling out 2 verses, deciding a meaning, and then slapping it together with some other verses.

You wanted an answer to your question. I asked you what you thought the meaning of the scriptures were that I provided to you in post # 332 linked. I did not provide an interpretation of those scriptures. You do not have to answer those questions if you do not want to but it only shows me you were never after an answer to your question from the scriptures. As it is written many do not want to come to the light of God's Word according to John 3:19-21 to know the truth of God's Word but this is the only place we can know God's truth as we prayerfully seek it through His Spirit.

 

[Fervent]

You wanted an answer to your question. I provided one. You do not have to answer it if you do not want to but it only shows me you were never after an answer from the scriptures.

Answering a question with a question? No, that's not an answer. I'm not sure what you are trying to get at with that random assortment of verses, but it matters not. If I wanted an answer from Scripture, I'd read my Bible. I asked an answer of you, because you are trying to put people in chains that Jesus died to free us from.

 

[LoveGodsWord]

Answering a question with a question? No, that's not an answer. I'm not sure what you are trying to get at with that random assortment of verses, but it matters not. If I wanted an answer from Scripture, I'd read my Bible. I asked an answer of you, because you are trying to put people in chains that Jesus died to free us from.

Helps the discussion by first finding out how you interpret those scriptures and secondly the answer is provided in the scriptures you did not want to read. Anyhow you do not have to answer the questions asked of you if you do not want to. Like I said earlier your response only shows me that your not really after an answer to your question. According to Jesus only those who are a servant to sin are in bondage *John 8:34; Romans 6:18-23 to sin.

 

[Fervent]

Helps the discussion by first finding out how you interpret those scriptures and secondly the answer is provided in the scriptures you did not want to read. Anyhow you do not have to answer the questions asked of you if you do not want to. Like I said earlier your response only shows me that your not really after an answer to your question.

Yes, my questions were rhetorical not seeking an answer. The gospel is simple, believe and receive. Faith produces obedience, but faith is the root issue not obedience. Getting people to behave better is powerless, they still die condemned. Christ will judge His servants, so the only reason to preach law is to try to usurp God's authority as judge for yourself.

 

[LoveGodsWord]

Yes, my questions were rhetorical not seeking an answer. The gospel is simple, believe and receive. Faith produces obedience, but faith is the root issue not obedience. Getting people to behave better is powerless, they still die condemned. Christ will judge His servants, so the only reason to preach law is to try to usurp God's authority as judge for yourself.

Where did I say in anything posted to you that obedience is the root issue? - I didn't. If I never said any such thing why are you pretending that I did? (see post #330 linked). What is it in the scriptures provided in the linked post that you disagree with and why? If you spent some time considering the scriptures shared with you in post # 332 linked, you would have found your answer by now and perhaps understood what I was trying to share with you but this is something you choose not to do. Oh well your loss not mine. Of course you are free to believe and do whatever you wish. That is between us and God according to the scriptures *John 12:47-48. Nice talking to you.

Take Care

 

[Leaf473]

Take your time and re-read what is posted to you. I will try and break it down so it is easier to follow if it may be helpful. Comparison in my earlier posts was not just between Galatians 5:14 but also to Romans 13:8 applied to contexts of love resulting in the law being fulfilled. Future ongoing action of the law being fulfilled is conditional to loving our neighbor as our self (context). The perfect tense in Greek is used to describe a completed action which produced results which are still in effect. The following link might be helpful for you *see Greek tenses explained.

For example Galatians 5:14 with the tenses applied with context reads "FOR THE ENTIRE LAW IS FULFILLED "IN THIS" [that is the the law being completed - perfect tense which is the meaning and grammar application of πεπλήρωται (is fulfilled) in what is about to be said as follows] "YOU SHALL LOVE" Ἀγαπήσεις [verb is future indicative active second person singular talking to us]. This means the law is fulfilled "IN THIS" YOU SHALL LOVE YOUR NEIGHBOR AS OUR SELF."

The same ideas as shown above are also shown directly from Romans 13:8 in a slightly different way but also agreeing with the above grammar tenses and context of the scripture provided in Galatians 5:14.

For example in Romans 13:8 Owe no man any thing, "BUT TO LOVE" [this is a verb that is present infinitive active. This means that "to love" is participating in the result to fulfill the law]; ONE ANOTHER ἀλλήλους [personal pronoun of who we are to love]. "HE THAT LOVES [is a verb that is a present participle active] HAS FULFILLED [perfect indicative active - completed action] to THE LAW [which is completed when we love another]. So as context is applied it is when we love another or our neighbor the law is fulfilled. So the thought here is that love is not separate from Gods' law, it is the action that fulfills God's law (compare the context of Romans 13:9-10)

All the above demonstrates from your two verses you provided that love is not separate from God's law it is expressed in obedience to Gods' law from the heart which is God's new covenant promise *Hebrews 8:10-12 from Jeremiah 31:31-34 and Ezekiel 36:24-27. We have not even started talking about the scripture contexts of Romans 13:8-10 which proves this further. We have also not even discussed the very words of Jesus in Matthew 22:36-40 where he states on these two great commandments of love hang all the law and the prophets; or that of James in Jame 2:8-12 and John in 1 John 5:2-3 who all agree with Paul that love is not separated from God's law it is expressed through obeying it. Love is expressed in obedience to Gods' law in those who believe and follow God's Word according to the scriptures *Romans 3:31.

Hope this is more helpful.

Thank you for writing back to me. I'm planning to go back to Post 298, unless you want me to respond to this post first.

 

[Leaf473]

You have only been provided scripture which supports what has been shared with you verbatim and that is love is not separate from God's law it is expressed in obedience to God' law resulting in the fulfilling of the letter of the law in those who have been born again to walk in the Spirit of the law through God's new covenant promise *Matthew 22:36-40 (quoting Deuteronomy 6:5 and Leviticus 19:18); Romans 13:8-10; James 2:8-11; 1 John 5:2-3; Hebrews 8:10-12 from Jeremiah 31:31-34 and Ezekiel 36:24-27; Galatians 5:16; Romans 3:31; 1 John 2:3-4; 1 John 3:4-10; Revelation 12:17; Revelation 14:12; Revelation 22:14.

As posted earlier all you have really said here Leaf is that you disagree with the scriptures shared with you without showing why you disagree. How is that a response to the posts you are quoting from that show from the scriptures that love is not separate from God's law and that love is expressed through obedience to God's law which in turn fulfills the letter of the law in those who have been born again into God's new covenant promise to walk in His Spirit? Yet everything that is shared with you here is God's Word not my words that you disagree with your words that are not Gods' Word. I can understand your unwillingness to discuss the topic or answer the questions asked of you but how do you suppose we can continue a discussion if you disregard or hand waive away the scriptures shared with you that disagree with your teachings?

...........

Let's talk about your claims here where you state that Galatians 5:14 and Romans 13:8 give a different interpretation to the scriptures provided above that show love is not separate from God's law it is expressed in obedience to God' law resulting in the fulfilling of the letter of the law in those who have been born again to walk in the Spirit of the law through God's new covenant promise.

The scriptures you provide and your argument and interpretation is as follows...

[1]. Galatians 5:14 says [4], For all the law is fulfilled [past tense] in one word, even in this; Thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself [present tense active].

links to...

[2]. Romans 13:8-10 [8], Owe no man any thing, but to love one another: for he that loves another [present tense active] hath fulfilled the law [past tense].

Your claim here is that the Greek word "fulfilled" shows that the law is fulfilled in the past tense . Now how does this disagree with anything that has been shared with you? It' doesn't but allow me to show why by looking at both tenses in the scripture, because when we love God with all of our heart, mind and soul and our neighbor as our self this is the Spirit of the law that fulfills the letter of the law and what it means to fulfill (obey) God's law.

Let's talk about the tenses in context to the scripture in Galatians 5:14 and Romans 13:8-10. Paul is not saying we love once past tense and all the law is fulfilled and we can continue to sin (break Gods law - 1 John 3:4). The application to "fulfilled" past tense to the law in Galatians 5:14 is when we love present tense. So when we love present tense the law is fulfilled. This is also made very clear in Romans 13:8 where Paul says "for he that loveth another hath fulfilled the law." It is loving or to love in the present tense that fulfills Gods' law. This is made clear in Romans 13:10 where Paul says that love is the "fulfilling" (keeping or doing) the law. Does this make sense to you? Love is present tense is resulting in the law being fulfilled in the past tense by obeying what Gods' word says. No one can claim to love God therefore according to the scriptures by breaking anyone of God's 10 commandments as shown directly in *Romans 13:8-10; James 2:8-11; 1 John 5:2-3. John goes on further to say that those who claim to know God while breaking his commandments are liars and the truth is not in them in 1 John 2:3-4 and that those who practice known unrepentant sin (breaking God's law) and those who do not practice sin is the difference the children of God and the children of the devil in 1 John 3:4-10; Revelation 12:17; Revelation 14:12; Revelation 22:14.

Paul demonstrates this in Romans 13:8-10 where he shows us that love is expressed and fulfilled in doing what God's law say..

Romans 13:8-10 [8], Owe no man any thing, but to love one another: for he that loves another hath fulfilled the law [past tense]. [9], FOR THIS (or what this means), THOU SHALT NOT COMMIT ADULTERY, THOU SHALT NOT KILL, THOU SHALT NOT STEAL, THOU SHALT NOT LIE, THOU SHALT NOT COVET; and IF THERE SHALL BE ANY OTHER COMMANDMENT, it is briefly SUMMED UP IN THE SAYING, NAMELY THOU SHALT LOVE THY NEIGHBOR AS YOUR SELF. [10], Love works no ill to his neighbour: therefore love is the fulfilling of the law [present tense active].

The Greek word used here for fulfilling of the law is πλήρωμα and means keeping the law or completing the law. The Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament, Thayer says for G4138 — πλήρωμα equivalent to πλήρωσις (see καύχημα, 2), i. e. a fulfilling, keeping: τοῦ νόμου (see πληρόω, 2 c. α.), Rom 13:10. For a full discussion of this word see Fritzsche, Ep. ad Romans, ii., p. 469ff; (especially Lightfoot's Commentary on Colossians, p. 257ff).

What you seem to be missing from Romans 13:9 as Paul is stating verbatim is that "Thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself is simply summing up those commandments in God's 10 commandments that are our duty of love to our neighbor which is what he is quoting from in God's 10 commandments.

No this is what scripture says verbatim so it is God's Word not my words that you deny with your words that are not God's Word and is the context of the scriptures you leave out in only looking at Romans 13:8 while disregarding Romans 13:8-10; James 2:8-12; Matthew 22:36-40 and 1 John 5:2-3. While ignoring those scriptures showing that Gods' saints obey God's law in 1 John 2:3-4; 1 John 3:6-10; Romans 3:31 Revelation 12:17; Revelation 14:12; Revelation 22:14 etc..

It is Gods' Word (not my words) that show that love is not separate from God's law it is expressed in obedience to God' law resulting in the fulfilling of the letter of the law in those who have been born again to walk in the Spirit of the law through God's new covenant promise

What God Word says...

Matthew 22:36-40 [36], Master, which is the great commandment in the law? [37], Jesus said unto him, Thou shalt love the Lord thy God with all thy heart, and with all thy soul, and with all thy mind. [38], This is the first and great commandment. [39], And the second is like unto it, Thou shalt love thy neighbor as thyself. [40], ON THESE TWO COMMANDMENTS HANG ALL THE LAW AND THE PROPHETS.

Jesus is not saying that love is separate from God's law he is says that on these two commandments hang all the law and the prophets which is what Gods' Word says that are not my words but Gods' Word which have been simply repeated to you verbatim. Paul agrees with Jesus when he says...

Romans 13:8-10 [8], Owe no man any thing, but to love one another: for he that loves another hath fulfilled the law [past tense]. [9], FOR THIS (or what this means), THOU SHALT NOT COMMIT ADULTERY, THOU SHALT NOT KILL, THOU SHALT NOT STEAL, THOU SHALT NOT LIE, THOU SHALT NOT COVET; and IF THERE SHALL BE ANY OTHER COMMANDMENT, it is briefly SUMMED UP IN THE SAYING, NAMELY THOU SHALT LOVE THY NEIGHBOR AS YOUR SELF. [10], Love works no ill to his neighbour: therefore love is the fulfilling of the law [present tense active].

Paul is agreeing with Jesus and not saying that love is separate from God's law he is says that love is expressed in obedience to Gods law and says that if we love another we will obey those commandments in God's 10 commandments (letter of the law) that show us how we are to love our fellow man by quoting those commandments verbatim. Paul is showing that to love our neighbor as our self is simply summing up those commandments in God's law that show us how we are to love our fellow man. These once again are God's Word not my words which have only been repeated to you from the scriptures. James also agrees with Jesus and Paul where he says...

James 2:8-12 [8], If ye fulfill the royal law according to the scripture, Thou shalt love thy neighbor as thyself, ye do well:[9], But if ye have respect to persons, YOU COMMIT SIN, AND ARE CONVINCED OF THE LAW AS TRANSGRESSORS. [10], For whosoever shall keep the whole law, and yet offend in one point, he is guilty of all. [11] For he that said, DO NOT COMMIT ADULTERY, said also, DO NOT KILL. Now if thou commit NO ADULTERY, yet if thou KILL, YOU ARE BECOME A TRANSGRESSOR OF GOD'S LAW

James agrees with Jesus and Paul where he links loving our neighbor as our self to obedience to all those commandments in Gods 10 commandments (letter of the law) that show us our duty of love to our neighbor. Once again these are God's Word not my words which have only been repeated to you from the scriptures verbatim. John also agrees with Jesus Paul and James where he says...

1 John 5:2-3 [2], By this we know that we love the children of God, WHEN WE LOVE GOD, AND KEEP HIS COMMANDMENTS. [3], FOR THIS IS THE LOVE OF GOD, THAT WE KEEP HIS COMMANDMENTS: and his commandments are not grievous.

John also agreeing with Jesus, Paul, James and John (5x different witnesses from the scriptures including Jesus) all in agreement showing that love is not separate from obedience to Gods' law. Love is expressed in obedience to God's law which fulfills the letter of the law. Once again these are God's Word not my words which have only been repeated to you from the scriptures verbatim.

Now what is it that you disagree with here from the scriptures that have been shared with you?

Looking at this portion here

You have only been provided scripture which supports what has been shared with you verbatim...

Are you saying that what has been shared with me is quotes of the scriptures and nothing else?

I see a lot of quotes of scriptures, but I also see a lot of your own words which are not scripture quotations.

What is it that you are saying is verbatim?