God, The Newborn, and the People of the Book

newton3005

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First, some definitions:

The newborn are those who are in Christ.
The people of the Book are those who abide by the Old Testament.

Therein lies the distinction, which is referred to in such passages as Galatians 4:24-26. There, Paul distinguishes between those who are from Mount Sinai, i.e. the children of the Book, and those who are free, i.e. those in Christ. And let’s be clear that as 2 Timothy 3:16 says that ALL scripture is for teaching, reproof, correction and training in righteousness, the Scriptures, both from the Old and New Testament, are not for us to challenge---But, at the very least, we are to recognize their existence.

So, when Paul in Galatians 4:24 says that those from Mt. Sinai are slated for slavery, we must accept this passage as it exists. The immediate inference, in the context of the Bible, is that those from Mt. Sinai are doomed to be slaves to the Law that God gave to Moses, abiding by everything in the Law including the ceremonial part. The ceremonial part includes the rituals such as eating matzoh instead of bread during Passover week, building booths of palm branches during Sukkot to commemorate the Hebrews living in temporary dwellings during their 40-year journey to the Promised Land, and keeping kosher in remembrance of what God directed the Hebrews not to eat on their journey. The ceremonial part of the Law keeps alive the roots of the Jewish lineage.

The New Testament asserts that those who are in Christ are free from abiding by the ceremonial part of the Law. Hebrews 6:1 says to “leave the elementary doctrine of Christ,” which considered the Law of the Old Testament. Jesus implies in Matthew 5:17-18 that the Law still stands, and he has come to fulfill it.

Are those from Mt. Sinai, the Jews if you will, really slaves as the term implies? Lexico.com defines a slave as “a person who is the legal property of another and is forced to obey them.” A slave is generally regarded as being below an earthly master. If so, there is no earthly master that the Jews are slaves to, inasmuch as Galatians 3:28 identifies separately slaves and the free---is a master not a free person? These Jews can be perceived as being slaves to God through the Book they abide by. They are slaves to no one on earth in that regard.

Paul, who was a Jew before he became a disciple of Lord Jesus, essentially brings out that we are free from the Book, since we now have Lord Jesus who is here to fulfill the Book. So, what is there left to do? We are guided by the two great commandments of Jesus that he tells us in Matthew 22:37-40. As many have asserted that works alone do not bring us to Jesus, then consider these commandments as being of faith....that is, in faith we love God with all our heart, soul and mind, and we love our neighbor as we love ourselves. But those who merely say “Lord, Lord” are not doing the Will of God.

Is it really a hindrance to be a slave to God when God promises in Deuteronomy 28 to bless and make fruitful and protect those who faithfully obey the voice of the Lord? In that regard, those whom Paul regards as slaves are no more slaves than if they merely had a an eat-at-Joes sign on their neck that says ‘Slave.’
 
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First, some definitions:

The newborn are those who are in Christ.
The people of the Book are those who abide by the Old Testament.

Therein lies the distinction, which is referred to in such passages as Galatians 4:24-26. There, Paul distinguishes between those who are from Mount Sinai, i.e. the children of the Book, and those who are free, i.e. those in Christ. And let’s be clear that as 2 Timothy 3:16 says that ALL scripture is for teaching, reproof, correction and training in righteousness, the Scriptures, both from the Old and New Testament, are not for us to challenge---But, at the very least, we are to recognize their existence.

So, when Paul in Galatians 4:24 says that those from Mt. Sinai are slated for slavery, we must accept this passage as it exists. The immediate inference, in the context of the Bible, is that those from Mt. Sinai are doomed to be slaves to the Law that God gave to Moses, abiding by everything in the Law including the ceremonial part. The ceremonial part includes the rituals such as eating matzoh instead of bread during Passover week, building booths of palm branches during Sukkot to commemorate the Hebrews living in temporary dwellings during their 40-year journey to the Promised Land, and keeping kosher in remembrance of what God directed the Hebrews not to eat on their journey. The ceremonial part of the Law keeps alive the roots of the Jewish lineage.

The New Testament asserts that those who are in Christ are free from abiding by the ceremonial part of the Law. Hebrews 6:1 says to “leave the elementary doctrine of Christ,” which considered the Law of the Old Testament. Jesus implies in Matthew 5:17-18 that the Law still stands, and he has come to fulfill it.

Are those from Mt. Sinai, the Jews if you will, really slaves as the term implies? Lexico.com defines a slave as “a person who is the legal property of another and is forced to obey them.” A slave is generally regarded as being below an earthly master. If so, there is no earthly master that the Jews are slaves to, inasmuch as Galatians 3:28 identifies separately slaves and the free---is a master not a free person? These Jews can be perceived as being slaves to God through the Book they abide by. They are slaves to no one on earth in that regard.

Paul, who was a Jew before he became a disciple of Lord Jesus, essentially brings out that we are free from the Book, since we now have Lord Jesus who is here to fulfill the Book. So, what is there left to do? We are guided by the two great commandments of Jesus that he tells us in Matthew 22:37-40. As many have asserted that works alone do not bring us to Jesus, then consider these commandments as being of faith....that is, in faith we love God with all our heart, soul and mind, and we love our neighbor as we love ourselves. But those who merely say “Lord, Lord” are not doing the Will of God.

Is it really a hindrance to be a slave to God when God promises in Deuteronomy 28 to bless and make fruitful and protect those who faithfully obey the voice of the Lord? In that regard, those whom Paul regards as slaves are no more slaves than if they merely had a an eat-at-Joes sign on their neck that says ‘Slave.’

Paul was a Jew his entire life. Where did you get the mistaken idea that "Paul, who was a Jew before he became a disciple of Lord Jesus.."

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Powerful evidence within Acts, reveals that Paul remained a dedicated Jew until his execution. In fact, if Paul had simply stated that he was no longer a Jew but the leader of a new religion, he would not have been imprisoned or executed.

After his arrest, Paul faced charges of blasphemy: “And after five days Ananias, the high priest, descended with the elders, and with a certain orator named Tertullus, who informed the Governor against Paul”. Paul could only be charged if he were a Jew. He presented himself to the Roman Jewish community as a loyal Jew who was being persecuted for his revisionist views. Paul’s vision was to make his brand of Judaism — with the recognition of Jesus as the Jewish Messiah — a world religion easily accessible to everyone. He never surrendered that passion.

Source: Bernard Starr, Professor Emeritus, CCNY

"He never converted to Christianity, because no such religion existed in his day. (Paul came along shortly after Jesus died.) All Paul did was switch his affiliation from one Jewish denomination to another, from Pharisaism to Jesus-ism."

"It belies everything we know about human nature to imagine Paul converting from highly educated Greco-Roman Jew to anti-Jewish Christian who rants about Jewish law like someone encountering it for the first time."

Source: New Testament scholar Pamela Eisenbaum
 
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newton3005

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"It belies everything we know about human nature to imagine Paul converting from highly educated Greco-Roman Jew to anti-Jewish Christian who rants about Jewish law like someone encountering it for the first time."

Are you asserting that Christians by definition are against Jews? In a sense, then, we would be against ourselves, wouldn't we? Does not Galatians 3:29 say we are heirs according to the Promise God made to Abraham? And is the Old Testament not included with the New Testament in any Christian Bible?
 
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Are you asserting that Christians by definition are against Jews? In a sense, then, we would be against ourselves, wouldn't we? Does not Galatians 3:29 say we are heirs according to the Promise God made to Abraham? And is the Old Testament not included with the New Testament in any Christian Bible?

Last things first... The Bible is composed of both the Old Testament and the New Testament; I read them both every day.

Secondly I have no idea what you're talking about about Jews and Christians. There was an earlier post about Paul not remaining a Jew, which of course he was throughout his entire life. That should be obvious to anyone who reads his epistles.

I am by no means saying that Christians by definition are against Jews. That is absurd! BTW, I was born a Jew and became a Christian many years ago. Am I, like Paul, still a Jew? I most definitely am. Jesus was a Jew, Paul was a Jew, and I am a Jew, so I'm in pretty good company.
 
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