God is NOT a liar. He will KEEP every promise He ever made.

Biblewriter

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Many people Imagine that God transferred the promises made to “Israel” to “the church,” or alternately, that Bible prophecy symbolically uses the word “Israel” to mean “the church.” But even if either of these were correct (which is not the case) this would still have no effect on many other explicitly stated promises that God made.

God made explicitly stated and unconditional promises to both of the ancient sub-nations of “Ephraim” and “Judah” in Isaiah 11:11-15, Ezekiel 37:15-28 and Zechariah 9:12-17, and to each of “the twelve tribes of Israel” by name in Ezekiel 48:1-8 and Ezekiel 48:23-19. He further made explicitly stated promises to the descendants of “Phinehas” in Numbers 25:10-13, to the descendants of “Zadok” in Ezekiel 44:15-16, to the descendants of “Nathan,” “Levi,” and “Shimei,” in Zechariah 12:12-13, to the descendants of the ancient “Levites” in Jeremiah 33:18 and Ezekiel 44:10-16, and to the descendnts of “Jonadab” in Jeremiah 35:18-19. He also made explicitly stated promises to the “mountains of Israel,” along with “the hills, the rivers, the valleys, the desolate wastes, and the cities that have been forsaken, which became plunder and mockery to the rest of the nations all around” in Ezekiel 36:1-10, to the plot of real estate defined by specifying its borders in Ezekiel 47:13-20, to “Zion” in Zechariah 9:13, Joel 3:16-17 and Micah 4:2-13, and to the city of “Jerusalem” in Jeremiah 32:32-44 and 33:16, Joel 3:1-21, Micah 4:2-8, and Zechariah 14:2-21 and 12:1-9.

All these promises were made parts of to the ancient “nation” of “Israel,” using terms that no scripture even implies could even possibly mean “the church.”But the promises did not stop there. Our God also made explicitly stated promises to the ancient nations of “Assyria” and “Egypt” in Isaiah 19:22-24, to the ancient nations of “Moab,” “Ammon,” and “Elam” in Jeremiah 48:47, Jeremiah 49:6, and Jeremiah 49:39, to “Sodom” and “Samaria” in Ezekiel 16:53-55, and finally, to the world generally in Isaiah 2:4, Micah 4:3, and Romans 11:15.

So, even if some people were correct in claiming that the “thousand years” of Revelation 20:1-8 is only a metaphor, simply meaning “a very long time,” this period is explicitly promised in MANY other scriptures. So whether this promised period of bliss will actually last “a thousand years,” or will only last “a very long time,” is only a minor detail. For it will most certainly take place, regardless of how long it will last. And anyone who denies this is making God out to be a liar.
 
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Veteran1990

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Many people Imagine that even God transferred the promises made to “Israel” to “the church,” or alternately, that Bible prophecy symbolically uses the word “Israel” to mean “the church.” But even if either of these were correct (which is not the case) this would still have no effect on many other explicitly stated promises that God made.

God made explicitly stated and unconditional promises to both of the ancient sub-nations of “Ephraim” and “Judah” in Isaiah 11:11-15, Ezekiel 37:15-28 and Zechariah 9:12-17, and to each of “the twelve tribes of Israel” by name in Ezekiel 48:1-8 and 23-19. He further made explicitly stated promises to the descendants of “Phinehas” in Numbers 25:10-13, to the descendants of “Zadok” in Ezekiel 44:15-16, to the descendants of “Nathan,” “Levi,” and “Shimei,” in Zechariah 12:12-13, to the descendants of the ancient “Levites” in Jeremiah 33:18 and Ezekiel 44:10-16, and to the descendnts of “Jonadab” in Jeremiah 35:18-19. He also made explicitly stated promises to the “mountains of Israel,” along with “the hills, the rivers, the valleys, the desolate wastes, and the cities that have been forsaken, which became plunder and mockery to the rest of the nations all around” in Ezekiel 36:1-10, to the plot of real estate defined by specifying its borders in Ezekiel 47:13-20, to “Zion” in Zechariah 9:13, Joel 3:16-17 and Micah 4:2-13, and to the city of “Jerusalem” in Jeremiah 32:32-44 and 33:16, Joel 3:1-21, Micah 4:2-8, and Zechariah 14:2-21 and 12:1-9.

All these promises were made parts of to the ancient “nation” of “Israel,” using terms that no scripture even implies could even possibly mean “the church.”But the promises did not stop there. Our God also made explicitly stated promises to the ancient nations of “Assyria” and “Egypt” in Isaiah 19:22-24, to the ancient nations of “Moab,” “Ammon,” and “Elam” in Jeremiah 48:47, Jeremiah 49:6, and Jeremiah 49:39, to “Sodom” and “Samaria” in Ezekiel 16:53-55, and finally, to the world generally in Isaiah 2:4, Micah 4:3, and Romans 11:15.

So, even if some people were correct in claiming that the “thousand years” of Revelation 20:1-8 is only a metaphor, simply meaning “a very long time,” this period is explicitly promised in MANY other scriptures. So whether this promised period of bliss will actually last “a thousand years,” or will only last “a very long time,” is only a minor detail. For it will most certainly take place, regardless of how long it will last. And anyone who denies this is making God out to be a liar.
I
Would contend that you are incorrect as:
Yahweh in 2Samuel 22:27 (cf. Ps 18:26 [Eng. 27]):

With the pure you are pure,
but with the wrongdoer you will be deceptive.
3
It is ok to lie to the wicked and God doesn't have a problem with it per the bibl
 
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Lifelong_sinner

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I
Would contend that you are incorrect as:
Yahweh in 2Samuel 22:27 (cf. Ps 18:26 [Eng. 27]):

With the pure you are pure,
but with the wrongdoer you will be deceptive.
3
It is ok to lie to the wicked and God doesn't have a problem with it per the bibl

it is NEVER ok to lie, regardless of who it is to. God does indeed hate liars, and paul said all liars will have their part in the lake of fire.
 
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Biblewriter

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I
Would contend that you are incorrect as:
Yahweh in 2Samuel 22:27 (cf. Ps 18:26 [Eng. 27]):

With the pure you are pure,
but with the wrongdoer you will be deceptive.
3
It is ok to lie to the wicked and God doesn't have a problem with it per the bibl
The scriptures clearly say:

God is not a man, that He should lie, Nor a son of man, that He should repent. Has He spoken, and will He not do? Or has He spoken, and will He not make it good? (Numbers 23:19)
 
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Biblewriter

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The Bible contains no contradictions whatsoever. I have been challenged on this MANY times, and without a single exception, EVERY claimed contradiction EVER presented to me has been based on a misunderstanding of one or both of the scriptures involved.

in this case, you are falsely assuming that being deceptive and lying are the same. They are not.

But your error here goes beyond misunderstanding the meaning of the scriptures. You are basing your contention on an erroneous translation. For the Hebrew word rendered “deceptive” in your translation does not even imply falsehood, but shrewdness. That Hebrew word is parallel, word number 6617 in Strong’s Hebrew Dictionary. This word means to twine, to wrestle, or to be tricky. But it does not even imply lying.
 
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Lifelong_sinner

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and it also says that God deceives the wicked in the verse I wrote. Whether or not you have realized it The Bible is full of contradictions.

if you think the Bible is full of contradictions, i would say the truth is not in you and that you are of the devil.
 
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Veteran1990

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The Bible contains no contradictions whatsoever. I have been challenged on this MANY times, and without a single exception, EVERY claimed contradiction EVER presented to me has been based on a misunderstanding of one or both of the scriptures involved.

in this case, you are falsely assuming that being deceptive and lying are the same. They are not.

in cases of war, which IS the state between God and Saran, deception is essential. God tricked Satan into crucifying Jesus, which was the greatest defeat Satan ever experienced. But God did not lie in the process of tricking him into doing exactly what God wanted done.

I see you are young. It is good you are defending the Bible so vigorously. Keep up the good work .
 
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BABerean2

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Many people Imagine that God transferred the promises made to “Israel” to “the church,” or alternately, that Bible prophecy symbolically uses the word “Israel” to mean “the church.” But even if either of these were correct (which is not the case) this would still have no effect on many other explicitly stated promises that God made.

Once a person comes to understand the New Covenant promised to Israel and Judah in Jeremiah 31:31-34, which is found fulfilled by Christ during the first century in Hebrews 8:6-13, and Hebrews 10:16-18, and specifically applied to the Church in 2 Corinthians 3:6-8, and Hebrews 12:22-24, modern Dispensational Theology falls apart, and the pretrib removal of the Church falls with it.


Who is really teaching “Replacement Theology” ?

(Did God fulfill His promises to the Jewish people at Calvary? Matthew 26:28, John 19:30)



The advocates of modern Dispensational Theology often accuse others of promoting “Replacement Theology”, or some may even say “Antisemitism”. What does the Bible say about their accusations?


1. Who is replacing Christ as the seed of Abraham through which all the families of the Earth would be blessed in Genesis 12:3, with Abraham’s modern descendants?


2. Who is replacing the one people of God in John 10:16, with two peoples of God ?


3. Who is replacing the one seed (Christ) in Galatians 3:16, with the many seeds?


4. Who is replacing the children of the promise in Romans 9:8, with the children of the flesh?


5. Who is replacing the faithful “remnant” of Israelites in Romans 11:1-5, with the Baal worshipers?


6. Who is replacing the word "so" in Romans 11:26, with the word "then"?


7. Who is attempting to replace the Church made up of all races of people, with one made up only of Gentiles? Why did Peter address the crowd as “all the house of Israel” in Acts 2:36, when about 3,000 Israelites accepted Christ on the Day of Pentecost?


8. Based on Hebrews 9:15, the New Covenant cannot be separated from the Messiah’s death. Is the covenant in Daniel 9:27 connected to the Messiah’s death in Daniel 9:26. Is the covenant with the “many” in Daniel 9:27 the same covenant with the “many” in Matthew 26:28? If it is, some have replaced the New Covenant in Daniel 9:27 with a future covenant made by an antichrist not found in Daniel chapter 9. (See the 1599 Geneva Bible used by the Pilgrims.)


9. Those promoting the Two Peoples of God doctrine of Dispensational Theology often accuse others of teaching “Replacement Theology”, but are they the masters of it? Are they promoting a form of Dual Covenant Theology based on race? (See “genealogies” in Titus 3:9)



10. Watch the YouTube video “Genesis of Dispensational Theology” to see the origin of this man-made doctrine, which is less than 200 years old. It was brought to the United States about the time of the Civil War by John Nelson Darby. The doctrine was later incorporated into the notes of the Scofield Reference Bible, and then spread through much of the modern Church.



Dallas Theological Seminary in Dallas Texas was created in part to promote John Darby’s Two Peoples of God doctrine of Dispensational Theology.

Lewis Sperry Chafer, the first president of Dallas Theological, had the following to say about the difference between Israel and the Church:



“The dispensationalist believes that throughout the ages God is pursuing two distinct purposes: one related to the earth with earthly people and earthly objectives involved which is Judaism; while the other is related to heaven with heavenly people and heavenly objectives involved, which is Christianity.”

Lewis Sperry Chafer, Dispensationalism (Dallas, Seminary Press, 1936), p. 107.


Chafer states that, ‘Israel is an eternal nation, heir to an eternal land, with an eternal kingdom, on which David rules from an eternal throne,’ that is, on earth and distinct from the church who will be in heaven.”

Lewis Sperry Chafer. Systematic Theology. 1975. Vol. IV. pp. 315-323.


John Walvoord, another prominent voice of Dallas Theological stated…


"...it is an article of normative dispensational belief that the boundaries of the land promised to Abraham and his descendants from the Nile to the Euphrates will be literally instituted and that Jesus Christ will return to a literal and theocratic Jewish kingdom centred on a rebuilt temple in Jerusalem. In such a scheme the Church on earth is relegated to the status of a parenthesis.”

John F. Walvoord, The Rapture Question.1979, p. 25

-------------------------------------------------------------------------

Are there two peoples of God in John 10:16? (See also 1 John 2:22-23, 2 John 1:7-11.)

What is the land promise to the Old Testament Saints in Hebrews 11:15-16?

Based on 2 Peter 3:10-13, is this earth “eternal”? Will it be replaced by a new earth?

Based on Acts 2:36, and Romans 9:6-8, and Romans 11:1-5, and Hebrews 12:22-24, and James 1:1-3, can faithful Israel and the Church be separated into two different groups?

Who is the New Covenant promised to in Jeremiah 31:31-34, and Hebrews 8:6-13?

Will modern Orthodox Jews ever be saved outside of the New Covenant Church?

.
 
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Clare73

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Many people Imagine that God transferred the promises made to “Israel” to “the church,” or alternately, that Bible prophecy symbolically uses the word “Israel” to mean “the church.” But even if either of these were correct (which is not the case) this would still have no effect on many other explicitly stated promises that God made.

God made explicitly stated and unconditional promises to both of the ancient sub-nations of “Ephraim” and “Judah” in Isaiah 11:11-15, Ezekiel 37:15-28 and Zechariah 9:12-17, and to each of “the twelve tribes of Israel” by name in Ezekiel 48:1-8 and Ezekiel 48:23-19. He further made explicitly stated promises to the descendants of “Phinehas” in Numbers 25:10-13, to the descendants of “Zadok” in Ezekiel 44:15-16, to the descendants of “Nathan,” “Levi,” and “Shimei,” in Zechariah 12:12-13, to the descendants of the ancient “Levites” in Jeremiah 33:18 and Ezekiel 44:10-16, and to the descendnts of “Jonadab” in Jeremiah 35:18-19. He also made explicitly stated promises to the “mountains of Israel,” along with “the hills, the rivers, the valleys, the desolate wastes, and the cities that have been forsaken, which became plunder and mockery to the rest of the nations all around” in Ezekiel 36:1-10, to the plot of real estate defined by specifying its borders in Ezekiel 47:13-20, to “Zion” in Zechariah 9:13, Joel 3:16-17 and Micah 4:2-13, and to the city of “Jerusalem” in Jeremiah 32:32-44 and 33:16, Joel 3:1-21, Micah 4:2-8, and Zechariah 14:2-21 and 12:1-9.

All these promises were made parts of to the ancient “nation” of “Israel,” using terms that no scripture even implies could even possibly mean “the church.”But the promises did not stop there. Our God also made explicitly stated promises to the ancient nations of “Assyria” and “Egypt” in Isaiah 19:22-24, to the ancient nations of “Moab,” “Ammon,” and “Elam” in Jeremiah 48:47, Jeremiah 49:6, and Jeremiah 49:39, to “Sodom” and “Samaria” in Ezekiel 16:53-55, and finally, to the world generally in Isaiah 2:4, Micah 4:3, and Romans 11:15.
So, even if some people were correct in claiming that the “thousand years” of Revelation 20:1-8 is only a metaphor, simply meaning “a very long time,” this period is explicitly promised in MANY other scriptures. So whether this promised period of bliss will actually last “a thousand years,” or will only last “a very long time,” is only a minor detail. For it will most certainly take place, regardless of how long it will last. And anyone who denies this is making God out to be a liar.
Where are you finding other 1,000-year promises to Israel?
 
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Biblewriter

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Where are you finding other 1,000-year promises to Israel?
I answered that trivial question in the OP, had you bothered to actually read it, instead of only reacting to it emotionally.
 
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Biblewriter

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Once a person comes to understand the New Covenant promised to Israel and Judah in Jeremiah 31:31-34, which is found fulfilled by Christ during the first century in Hebrews 8:6-13, and Hebrews 10:16-18, and specifically applied to the Church in 2 Corinthians 3:6-8, and Hebrews 12:22-24, modern Dispensational Theology falls apart, and the pretrib removal of the Church falls with it.


Who is really teaching “Replacement Theology” ?

(Did God fulfill His promises to the Jewish people at Calvary? Matthew 26:28, John 19:30)



The advocates of modern Dispensational Theology often accuse others of promoting “Replacement Theology”, or some may even say “Antisemitism”. What does the Bible say about their accusations?


1. Who is replacing Christ as the seed of Abraham through which all the families of the Earth would be blessed in Genesis 12:3, with Abraham’s modern descendants?


2. Who is replacing the one people of God in John 10:16, with two peoples of God ?


3. Who is replacing the one seed (Christ) in Galatians 3:16, with the many seeds?


4. Who is replacing the children of the promise in Romans 9:8, with the children of the flesh?


5. Who is replacing the faithful “remnant” of Israelites in Romans 11:1-5, with the Baal worshipers?


6. Who is replacing the word "so" in Romans 11:26, with the word "then"?


7. Who is attempting to replace the Church made up of all races of people, with one made up only of Gentiles? Why did Peter address the crowd as “all the house of Israel” in Acts 2:36, when about 3,000 Israelites accepted Christ on the Day of Pentecost?


8. Based on Hebrews 9:15, the New Covenant cannot be separated from the Messiah’s death. Is the covenant in Daniel 9:27 connected to the Messiah’s death in Daniel 9:26. Is the covenant with the “many” in Daniel 9:27 the same covenant with the “many” in Matthew 26:28? If it is, some have replaced the New Covenant in Daniel 9:27 with a future covenant made by an antichrist not found in Daniel chapter 9. (See the 1599 Geneva Bible used by the Pilgrims.)


9. Those promoting the Two Peoples of God doctrine of Dispensational Theology often accuse others of teaching “Replacement Theology”, but are they the masters of it? Are they promoting a form of Dual Covenant Theology based on race? (See “genealogies” in Titus 3:9)



10. Watch the YouTube video “Genesis of Dispensational Theology” to see the origin of this man-made doctrine, which is less than 200 years old. It was brought to the United States about the time of the Civil War by John Nelson Darby. The doctrine was later incorporated into the notes of the Scofield Reference Bible, and then spread through much of the modern Church.



Dallas Theological Seminary in Dallas Texas was created in part to promote John Darby’s Two Peoples of God doctrine of Dispensational Theology.

Lewis Sperry Chafer, the first president of Dallas Theological, had the following to say about the difference between Israel and the Church:



“The dispensationalist believes that throughout the ages God is pursuing two distinct purposes: one related to the earth with earthly people and earthly objectives involved which is Judaism; while the other is related to heaven with heavenly people and heavenly objectives involved, which is Christianity.”

Lewis Sperry Chafer, Dispensationalism (Dallas, Seminary Press, 1936), p. 107.


Chafer states that, ‘Israel is an eternal nation, heir to an eternal land, with an eternal kingdom, on which David rules from an eternal throne,’ that is, on earth and distinct from the church who will be in heaven.”

Lewis Sperry Chafer. Systematic Theology. 1975. Vol. IV. pp. 315-323.


John Walvoord, another prominent voice of Dallas Theological stated…


"...it is an article of normative dispensational belief that the boundaries of the land promised to Abraham and his descendants from the Nile to the Euphrates will be literally instituted and that Jesus Christ will return to a literal and theocratic Jewish kingdom centred on a rebuilt temple in Jerusalem. In such a scheme the Church on earth is relegated to the status of a parenthesis.”

John F. Walvoord, The Rapture Question.1979, p. 25

-------------------------------------------------------------------------

Are there two peoples of God in John 10:16? (See also 1 John 2:22-23, 2 John 1:7-11.)

What is the land promise to the Old Testament Saints in Hebrews 11:15-16?

Based on 2 Peter 3:10-13, is this earth “eternal”? Will it be replaced by a new earth?

Based on Acts 2:36, and Romans 9:6-8, and Romans 11:1-5, and Hebrews 12:22-24, and James 1:1-3, can faithful Israel and the Church be separated into two different groups?

Who is the New Covenant promised to in Jeremiah 31:31-34, and Hebrews 8:6-13?

Will modern Orthodox Jews ever be saved outside of the New Covenant Church?

.
When you deny, as you do, that God will ACTUALLY keep these promises, you are making God out to be a liar.
 
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Clare73

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I answered that trivial question in the OP, had you bothered to actually read it, instead of only reacting to it emotionally.
Given to much emotional assuming?

The numbers of 7, 12, 77, 144, 1,000, 144,000, etc. are sometimes used as symbols of fullness, indicating completion, rather than literal quantities.

Your post is a good demonstration of that point.
 
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Clare73

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Once a person comes to understand the New Covenant promised to Israel and Judah in Jeremiah 31:31-34, which is found fulfilled by Christ during the first century in Hebrews 8:6-13, and Hebrews 10:16-18, and specifically applied to the Church in 2 Corinthians 3:6-8, and Hebrews 12:22-24, modern Dispensational Theology falls apart, and the pretrib removal of the Church falls with it.
Who is really teaching “Replacement Theology” ?
(Did God fulfill His promises to the Jewish people at Calvary? Matthew 26:28, John 19:30)

The advocates of modern Dispensational Theology often accuse others of promoting “Replacement Theology”, or some may even say “Antisemitism”. What does the Bible say about their accusations?


1. Who is replacing Christ as the seed of Abraham through which all the families of the Earth would be blessed in Genesis 12:3, with Abraham’s modern descendants?


2. Who is replacing the one people of God in John 10:16, with two peoples of God ?


3. Who is replacing the one seed (Christ) in Galatians 3:16, with the many seeds?


4. Who is replacing the children of the promise in Romans 9:8, with the children of the flesh?


5. Who is replacing the faithful “remnant” of Israelites in Romans 11:1-5, with the Baal worshipers?


6. Who is replacing the word "so" in Romans 11:26, with the word "then"?


7. Who is attempting to replace the Church made up of all races of people, with one made up only of Gentiles? Why did Peter address the crowd as “all the house of Israel” in Acts 2:36, when about 3,000 Israelites accepted Christ on the Day of Pentecost?


8. Based on Hebrews 9:15, the New Covenant cannot be separated from the Messiah’s death. Is the covenant in Daniel 9:27 connected to the Messiah’s death in Daniel 9:26. Is the covenant with the “many” in Daniel 9:27 the same covenant with the “many” in Matthew 26:28? If it is, some have replaced the New Covenant in Daniel 9:27 with a future covenant made by an antichrist not found in Daniel chapter 9. (See the 1599 Geneva Bible used by the Pilgrims.)


9. Those promoting the Two Peoples of God doctrine of Dispensational Theology often accuse others of teaching “Replacement Theology”, but are they the masters of it? Are they promoting a form of Dual Covenant Theology based on race? (See “genealogies” in Titus 3:9)



10. Watch the YouTube video “Genesis of Dispensational Theology” to see the origin of this man-made doctrine, which is less than 200 years old. It was brought to the United States about the time of the Civil War by John Nelson Darby. The doctrine was later incorporated into the notes of the Scofield Reference Bible, and then spread through much of the modern Church.



Dallas Theological Seminary in Dallas Texas was created in part to promote John Darby’s Two Peoples of God doctrine of Dispensational Theology.

Lewis Sperry Chafer, the first president of Dallas Theological, had the following to say about the difference between Israel and the Church:



“The dispensationalist believes that throughout the ages God is pursuing two distinct purposes: one related to the earth with earthly people and earthly objectives involved which is Judaism; while the other is related to heaven with heavenly people and heavenly objectives involved, which is Christianity.”

Lewis Sperry Chafer, Dispensationalism (Dallas, Seminary Press, 1936), p. 107.


Chafer states that, ‘Israel is an eternal nation, heir to an eternal land, with an eternal kingdom, on which David rules from an eternal throne,’ that is, on earth and distinct from the church who will be in heaven.”

Lewis Sperry Chafer. Systematic Theology. 1975. Vol. IV. pp. 315-323.
John Walvoord, another prominent voice of Dallas Theological stated…
"...it is an article of normative dispensational belief that the boundaries of the land promised to Abraham and his descendants from the Nile to the Euphrates will be literally instituted and that Jesus Christ will return to a literal and theocratic Jewish kingdom centred on a rebuilt temple in Jerusalem. In such a scheme the Church on earth is relegated to the status of a parenthesis.”
John F. Walvoord, The Rapture Question.1979, p. 25
That land promise was fulfilled under Solomon (1 Kings 4:21, 1 Kings 4:24-25).

On what authority does he say it will be fulfilled again?
Are there two peoples of God in John 10:16? (See also 1 John 2:22-23, 2 John 1:7-11.)
What is the land promise to the Old Testament Saints in Hebrews 11:15-16?
Based on 2 Peter 3:10-13, is this earth “eternal”? Will it be replaced by a new earth?
Based on Acts 2:36, and Romans 9:6-8, and Romans 11:1-5, and Hebrews 12:22-24, and James 1:1-3, can faithful Israel and the Church be separated into two different groups?
Who is the New Covenant promised to in Jeremiah 31:31-34, and Hebrews 8:6-13?
Will modern Orthodox Jews ever be saved outside of the New Covenant Church?
 
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Given to much emotional assuming?

The numbers of 7, 12, 77, 144, 1,000, 144,000, etc. are sometimes used as symbols of fullness, indicating completion, rather than literal quantities.

Your post is a good demonstration of that point.
AND - I pointed out that whether the “1000 years” is literal or metaphorical is actually a minor detail. The HARD FACT is that this period is described or referred to in a very large number of explicitly stated scriptures, MANY of which I quoted in the OP.
 
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Veteran1990

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I answered that trivial question in the OP, had you bothered to actually read it, instead of only reacting to it emotionally.
You are way too aggressive.anything you say serves no point because of how aggressive you are.youre going to wind up offending anybody before you teach them
 
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Clare73

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AND - I pointed out that whether the “1000 years” is literal or metaphorical is actually a minor detail. The HARD FACT is that this period is described or referred to in a very large number of explicitly stated scriptures, MANY of which I quoted in the OP.
Good, then we agree it is not literal in Revelation 20.
 
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BABerean2

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When you deny, as you do, that God will ACTUALLY keep these promises, you are making God out to be a liar.

I am not the one claiming God did not fulfill His promises to the Jewish people at Calvary.

That claim comes directly from the Jesuit book found in the link below.
See page 52 of Irving's Preliminary Dicourse, Part II. (Time 7:11 in the video.)

Genesis of Dispensational Theology:


.
 
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Biblewriter

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Good, then we agree it is not literal in Revelation 20.
No, we do not agree on that point. The LENGTH of that period MAY POSSIBLY be metaphorical. But the FACT that there will be such a physical kingdom IN THIS WORLD cannot even possibly be metaphorical. It is explicitly stated in too many scriptures and in too many ways.
 
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