razzelflabben
Contributor
well that isn't totally true but whatever....let's try this a different way...what do you think "glory" means? Please be specific and feel free to use the Lexicon since I am more than willing to do so....I'm not refusing any such thing. You seem to think that doing it to benefit Israel somehow precludes God doing it to His own glory - a position you have yet to show is reasonable in any way.
what did I tell you that meant in context...I did not deny that He said He would benefit...what I said is that the benefit would be for Israel to know that He was their rightful Daddy and as such needed to listen to Him not the false gods...which is consistent with what all the commentaries say especially if you leave the context in tact...Look again that the commentaries you YOU LINKED TO:
Ellicot - "assert His own righteousness"
Benson - "that I may be praised"
Poole's - "vindication of my name AND GLORY"
Gill's - "because of His GLORY"
I absolutely do but let's back up and see it again cause apparently you are confusing yourself as to what is being said by the text as well as by me.It's right there in black & white from reputable commentaries. You have no basis whatsoever to deny that God is doing it for His glory.
see above...I have provided many and it all starts with reading for comprehension as per elementary level reading skills.Show me ONE source that states what God did in Isaiah 48:9 means God did NOT do it for His own glory. I don't mean a commentary that doesn't mention it either way - I want a source that EXPLICITLY PRECLUDES God having done it for His own Glory. Just one.
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