timbo3
Newbie
This goes without saying...
Amos 3:8 hardly says anything like "he selectively chooses to see the future." It seems just extra-biblical.
The 'babes' do not get the divine knowledge of God of what is going to happen in the future, even being we understand the Word. I don't know what's going to happen in the future that God knows of.
You did say "It is like a doctor prescribing a medication." My point is that causation with knowledge would make one guilty, while knowledge with no causation may not require responsibility.
You are still assuming causation with foreknowledge when there isn't. I've exemplified this in the bold. Foreknowledge does not equate causation. This has been stated many times, and not specifically responded to. Of course I would be guilty because I actively put the tire on myself. In foreknowledge, God does not actively put the tire on, but simply knows the tire is going on. So I think your analogy is incomparable.
This is also something I mentioned which you did not respond to, that there could still be free will under foreknowledge. The two are compatible.
Rhetorical.
When this verse mentions "all the earth" I don't take that to mean that He knows only somethings on earth rather all things. I take that to mean that God's omniscience and omnipresence is throughout all of the earth, and as God is present everywhere and not just some places, God knows of all in the same extraordinary way.
There is nothing to misunderstand. I've already answered the illustration. The engineer would not know if the product is going to fail. You still would need to take the analogy further to say he installed the product which is where it gets even more false, as again, foreknowledge does not equal causation.
I hope you can realize that this question does not pertain to foreknowledge, as there is no causation (driving) in foreknowledge. That means that even if if I answer no, which I would, it is not relevant to foreknowledge or showing it wrong.
I meant to say Amos 3:7, not 8. Let's just "cut to the chase", and understand that if God had used his foreknowledge and knew in advance that Adam and Eve would sin (Adam as the head is the one held more accountable by Jehovah God, Rom 5:12), then there would have been no need of a test.(Gen 2:17)
Had God used his foreknowledge and knew in advance that Adam and Eve would rebel, then by the making of man he would have then set in motion all the "woes" that are now on the earth.
However, our Creator Jehovah God does not work that way. He did not use his foreknowledge for this, but allowed the test to play out concerning Adam and Eve. He permits each individual to prove what their "work" is (Gal 6:4; Ecc 7:1), as to whether or not they will seek him out or disregard him. Only on special occasions has he used his foreknowledge to provide insight of a person, such as Jeremiah, or of a situation, such as the trek of world powers that would personally affect his people, as seen at Daniel 7, 8, and 11.
At Genesis 11:5-8, God is described as directing his attention earthward, surveying the situation at Babel, and, at that time, determining the action to be taken to break up the unrighteous project there. After wickedness developed at Sodom and Gomorrah, Jehovah advised Abraham of his decision to investigate (by means of his angels) to see whether they act altogether according to the outcry over it that has come to me, and, if not, I can get to know it. (Ge 18:20-22; 19:1)
God spoke of becoming acquainted with Abraham, and after Abraham went to the point of attempting to sacrifice Isaac, Jehovah said, For now I do know that you are God-fearing in that you have not withheld your son, your only one, from me.(Gen 18:19; 22:11, 12) Had he known Abraham in advance, would he have said that "now (not previously) I do know" that he would be faithful to him ? Why the test if he foreknew such ones as Abraham would be loyal ?
Hence, Jehovah uses his capability of foreknowledge selectively, only what fits his purpose. And all the questions I have presented do pertain to foreknowledge.
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