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Genesis 6:1-4 and Jude 6&7 what do these passages mean? Why should we care?

Discussion in 'Eschatology - Endtimes & Prophecy Forum' started by Postvieww, Jun 28, 2016.

  1. Riberra

    Riberra Well-Known Member

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    Nice try but no cigars !

    The word dowr mean GENERATION ----POSTERITY ----Generation from generation of descendants from Adam ---->Seth.... to Noah ---->The Genesis 5 lineage .
    dowr
    dore
    or (shortened) dor {dore}; from 'duwr' (1752); properly, a revolution of time, i.e. an age or generation; also a dwelling:--age, X evermore, generation, (n-)ever, posterity.
     
    Last edited: Mar 20, 2018
  2. 4x4toy

    4x4toy Newbie Supporter

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    You're right, it says like angels concerning sex and marriage :oldthumbsup:
    But, why did kings make and put eunuchs in charge of their harems ? Because they suddenly became good at math ? ^_^......... And I can see sex, drugs and rock n roll easier than sex and/or drugs, and the ''old rugged cross'' music .. Also never seen women throwing their room keys and drawers at George Beverley Shea like they did at Tom Jones ^_^.. You just can't make the connections or either you can and won't admit it .. I like all music within reason .. Occasionally my wife and I will take a little time , drink a little wine , put on some soft classic rock or 60's motown , chill out, laugh, talk a little, and see what happens, very nice but in heaven we move on to much greater and better things .. I've had a dream of being in heaven and I know we will not miss a single thing or earthly pleasure from this life ..
     
  3. 4x4toy

    4x4toy Newbie Supporter

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    I believe one creation and I am a son of God now .. Angels had a choice , mankind has a choice, you keep saying the offspring of fallen angels and women produced beings apart from God that have no choice .. Sorry Sis, that does not fit the character of God imo ..
     
  4. seventysevens

    seventysevens Well-Known Member

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    Yep , good to see you are in agreement :oldthumbsup:
     
  5. seventysevens

    seventysevens Well-Known Member

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    You need to get some reading glasses as the scripture does not speak of sex - though you wish it did :)
     
  6. 4x4toy

    4x4toy Newbie Supporter

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    Agree, but some screwballs teach he did, more lies from the uninspired dreamers .. Stick with the KJV ..
     
  7. 4x4toy

    4x4toy Newbie Supporter

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    Taking more stuff out of context , it becomes you ..
     
  8. 4x4toy

    4x4toy Newbie Supporter

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    What was it speaking of ?
     
  9. Postvieww

    Postvieww Newbie

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    Why do you continually refer to a book you believe has no relevance to argue against a case that can be made from scripture without said book? Just wondering?
     
  10. 4x4toy

    4x4toy Newbie Supporter

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  11. Postvieww

    Postvieww Newbie

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    You said:

    “Son of God, No not until we are begotten of God through the Holy Spirit ''Born again''”

    Can you provide even one scripture that states any OT saint was “begotten of God through the Holy Spirit ''Born again'' ?

    If we can’t get our terminology in line with each other it is no wonder we can’t get our doctrine to agree.

    No Old Testament saint was born again in the same way we are after the death burial and resurrection of Christ.

    John 14:17 Even the Spirit of truth; whom the world cannot receive, because it seeth him not, neither knoweth him: but ye know him; for he dwelleth with you, and shall be in you.

    Let’s look at the disciples. When Jesus made the above statement the disciples had the Spirit with them but not in them. That could not happen until after the death burial and resurrection of Christ and the “Spirit” began to dwell in the hearts of men not just rest upon them as was the case with OT saints.

    1 John 2:27 But the anointing which ye have received of him abideth in you, and ye need not that any man teach you: but as the same anointing teacheth you of all things, and is truth, and is no lie, and even as it hath taught you, ye shall abide in him.

    Notice how John describes the believer after the resurrection of Christ. The anointing (Spirit) abideth in you.

    This is one big reason that the argument that tries to link the use of the phrase “son of God” in the NT to the use of the phrase in the OT falls flat. A son of God in the OT is simply not the same thing as in the NT and is is total error to try and make them the same.

    Let’s put on our thinking caps and let me ask you a question about Thomas. Thomas was not with the other disciples when they first believed that Christ was risen John 20:22 Jesus breathed on them and they received the Holy Spirit. I am convinced that is the moment they became born again NT believers. They were not grandfathered into salvation just because they walked with Christ. They had to believe He was the risen savior like everyone else who is born again under the New Covenant.

    Now to my Thomas question. John 20:25 when Thomas said “Except I shall see in his hands the print of the nails, and put my finger into the print of the nails, and thrust my hand into his side, I will not believe” was he at that time a born again NT believer, saved by the blood of the Lamb? I argue no he could not have been . He stated he would not believe Christ was risen unless he could see and verify. Saying “I will not believe” will not get anyone saved, no not even Thomas.

    27 Then saith he to Thomas, Reach hither thy finger, and behold my hands; and reach hither thy hand, and thrust it into my side: and be not faithless, but believing.

    Jesus in His mercy allowed Thomas to verify.

    28 And Thomas answered and said unto him, My Lord and my God.

    I believe at this moment Thomas was a born again, saved by the blood, NT believer.

    29 Jesus saith unto him, Thomas, because thou hast seen me, thou hast believed: blessed are they that have not seen, and yet have believed.

    Jesus confirms this in the above passage. Thomas’s case was unique, we fall into the latter category “blessed are they that have not seen, and yet have believed”.

    To your question, “How did Adam make it to heaven” . I don’t think we can say beyond a shadow of a doubt what his eternal status is. If you can prove it by scripture I am open to what you have to say. I think most assume he was in right standing with God when he died and if that be true he went to the place called Abraham’s bosom, (Luke 16:22), in the heart of the earth not heaven. After the resurrection of Christ it is my belief he would now reside in heaven. That’s my story and I’m sticking to it.
     
    Last edited: Mar 20, 2018
  12. Postvieww

    Postvieww Newbie

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    I did address it, way back in this thread and it is you who overlooked my post on that passage. I just don’t agree with your interpretation nor that of the man in the video you posted. I am not overlooking anything.
     
    Last edited: Mar 20, 2018
  13. DavidPT

    DavidPT Well-Known Member

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    According to my Strong's, it is towldah that is used in Genesis 5, not dowr. What then is your point here?
     
  14. Riberra

    Riberra Well-Known Member

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    The question should be what was your point when you wrote:
     
    Last edited: Mar 20, 2018
  15. 4x4toy

    4x4toy Newbie Supporter

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    Matthew 27:52-53 .. Didn't everybody before Jesus have to have faith in God .. From Adam the creation story and his fall, sons of God called on God , Job and his sons/men, the sons of God of the land observed feast days ,then later with more prophecy available everybody had faith in Messiah all rolled forward waiting in paradise and are you born again of your own or must you have a call/desire for and from God to be chosen .. You can call on God but God sees your heart to be chosen or not ..
     
    Last edited: Mar 20, 2018
  16. DavidPT

    DavidPT Well-Known Member

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    My point is that 2 different Hebrew words were used for the verse in question. The part that says Noah was perfect in his generations, the Hebrew word wasn't towldah, such as is used in Genesis 5:1, but was dowr instead. If the sense was as the same for generations in Genesis 5:1, why wasn't the same Hebrew word used in Genesis 6:9? towldah is used in Genesis 6:9, but not in the 2nd clause though. Must be a good reason why that is so. Probably because generations in the 2nd clause is meaning in a different sense than generations in the first clause. In the first clause the sense seems to be like that of Genesis 5:1.
     
  17. Riberra

    Riberra Well-Known Member

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    That is becoming interesting ----> Genesis 5:1 refers to the humans male and female that God have created on the 6TH Day to which it was said to be fruitful and multiply and subdue the Earth....

    While Genesis 6:9 refers to the lineage of the man called Adam that God have formed from the dust of the Earth and placed in a Garden ---- which PURE lineage begin with Seth ----> to Noah ...Genesis 5:3-32 Adam ---Seth ...to Noah.
     
    Last edited: Mar 20, 2018
  18. 4x4toy

    4x4toy Newbie Supporter

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    What is it that applies one way or the other
     
  19. DavidPT

    DavidPT Well-Known Member

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    Assuming sons of God in Genesis 6 are meaning fallen angels, well, they were having sex with the women and not the men. Then apparently producing hybrid offspring as a result. Noah is said to have begat 3 sons. In what way could these fallen angels contaminate Noah's bloodline? How would they accomplish that? To claim they didn't contaminate Noah's bloodline, because Genesis 6:9 says Noah was perfect in his generations, implies it was possible to do so. Assuming that was the correct interpretation of that part. So how would it be possible then, for these angels to contaminate Noah's bloodline, if Noah's bloodline consisted of sons?
     
  20. Riberra

    Riberra Well-Known Member

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    Noah's wife have not mated with the Fallen Angels Genesis 6:1-4 ... simple as that !
     
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