Fornication and Remarriage

[Joe Green]

Adultery is sex between a male and a female, If it is not a biblical covenant marriage. Thus, two single persons having
sex together,neither ever being married, would be only adultery. Fornication is a single person never married, having sex
with a married person. We have to rightly divide the word to get the, New Testament meaning of fornication.

 

[ViaCrucis]

Adultery is sex between a male and a female, If it is not a biblical covenant marriage. Thus, two single persons having
sex together,neither ever being married, would be only adultery. Fornication is a single person never married, having sex
with a married person. We have to rightly divide the word to get the, New Testament meaning of fornication.

The words have meanings.

μοιχεία (moicheia) means adultery -- to have sex with a married person, or to have sex with one that isn't your spouse.

πορνεία (inappropriate contenteia) means prostitution -- to prostitute oneself, or have sex with a prostitute.

Both words can have an expanded meaning, for example moicheia can be used figuratively of infidelity in matters of religion, such as infidelity to God; and inappropriate contenteia can refer to prostituting oneself in a way that isn't explicitly prostitution itself.

But, no, a single person who has never been married having sex with a married person is moicheia, not inappropriate contenteia.

-CryptoLutheran

 

[dayhiker]

Other ways to learn the meaning of inappropriate contenteia is to see what Greek word was translate the Hebrew word for prostitution by the authors of the LXX that was a translation of the Hebrew Bible into Greek 200 BC.

Then one can study what Latin word was used by Jerome when he translated the Latin Vulgate just after 300AD. It is also interesting to know that it was against Roman law for one to have premarital sex and that those aren't the words that Jerome used in his translation.

 

[Open Heart]

https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/πορνεία

http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper...:1999.04.0057:entry=inappropriate contentei/a

Every source I'm familiar with has prostitution as the primary and specific meaning of πορνεία. Because πορνεία is the activity of a πόρνος/πόρνη, a prostitute.

-CryptoLutheran

I see your point. HOWEVER, both your links ALSO give the definition as fornication. I have highlighted the portion that defines fornication as illicit intercourse.
Noun[edit]
fornication ‎(countable and uncountable, plural fornications)

1. Sexual intercourse, especially on the part of an unmarried person.
2. (law) The act of such illicit sexual intercourse between a man and a woman which does not by law amount to adultery.

 

[Open Heart]

Two singles never been married, having sex together is adultery, not fornication.

no it's not. adultery involves at least one married person.

 

[dayhiker]

Illicit or sexually immorality are new words, like since 1950. These are terms that are defined in the mind of the hearer not in ancient Biblical languages. The words themselves don't any specific sexual sin.

 

[Open Heart]

Illicit or sexually immorality are new words, like since 1950. These are terms that are defined in the mind of the hearer not in ancient Biblical languages. The words themselves don't any specific sexual sin.

Illicit means unlawful. There are plenty of specific sexual acts in the bible that are unlawful. Try Leviticus 18 for a long list.

 

[farout]

1 Corinthians 7:2 "Nevertheless, to avoid fornication let every man have his own wife, and let every woman have her own husband."

Fornication-A single person having someone's Biblical (covenant) companion.

It seems to be slowly developing in the minds of the people that when a man who has no living wife marries a woman with a husband that that man will be free to divorce this woman and be free to marry another. The man is guilty of fornication and may marry another but the woman is bound to her first companion. - Church of Prophecy

Here is the huge issue. People reject what Jesus said. They know Jesus said except for sexual immorality there should be no divorce. Matthew 5:32, 19:9 Mark 10:2-12, Luke 16:14-18 Romans 2:4, 7:1-3 1 Corinthians 7:39

But so called Christians who do divorce for reasons other that Sexual immorality are braking the Covenant they have with God. If those who divorce for other reasons and remarry they are adulterers. That is very serious. maybe you who have divorced without Biblical grounds have not thought about it. Maybe you are not a Christian if you don't follow His teachings. maybe you just don't care.

If you are divorced and have just come to realize what you have done is and was wrong, you need to read 1 John 1:9 there is hope and forgiveness. You need to confess this sin, both your and your new marriage partner. God can and does forgive. Its not too late to get you home off to the right start. Don't ever divorce again. That is Gods answer to the divorce problem.

 

[Open Heart]

Here is the huge issue. People reject what Jesus said. They know Jesus said except for sexual immorality there should be no divorce. Matthew 5:32, 19:9 Mark 10:2-12, Luke 16:14-18 Romans 2:4, 7:1-3 1 Corinthians 7:39

But so called Christians who do divorce for reasons other that Sexual immorality are braking the Covenant they have with God. If those who divorce for other reasons and remarry they are adulterers. That is very serious. maybe you who have divorced without Biblical grounds have not thought about it. Maybe you are not a Christian if you don't follow His teachings. maybe you just don't care.

If you are divorced and have just come to realize what you have done is and was wrong, you need to read 1 John 1:9 there is hope and forgiveness. You need to confess this sin, both your and your new marriage partner. God can and does forgive. Its not too late to get you home off to the right start. Don't ever divorce again. That is Gods answer to the divorce problem.

If they have remarried, what do you suggest they do about their current state of adultery?

 

[farout]

If they have remarried, what do you suggest they do about their current state of adultery?

1 John 1:9. If we confess our sins He is faithful to forgive and cleanse us from ALL unrighteousness. We stay as we are, we confess the sin. We are determine never to do that again. We go forth and serve King Jesus.

If a woman is being treated very wrong or they can not get along, they can live apart, but they must remain single or be reconciled to their husband or wife as the case might be. Even if either party has been immoral and committed adultery, God is still able to heal those broken marriages. God heals broken people!

 

[Open Heart]

1 John 1:9. If we confess our sins He is faithful to forgive and cleanse us from ALL unrighteousness. We stay as we are, we confess the sin. We are determine never to do that again. We go forth and serve King Jesus.

If a woman is being treated very wrong or they can not get along, they can live apart, but they must remain single or be reconciled to their husband or wife as the case might be. Even if either party has been immoral and committed adultery, God is still able to heal those broken marriages. God heals broken people!

Yes, yes. But what if they have NOT remained single. What if they have disobeyed God, gone on, and remarried, meaning they are now in an adulterous relationship. Let's start with if they do not have children by the remarriage. Does God require them to move apart?

 

[dayhiker]

Illicit means unlawful. There are plenty of specific sexual acts in the bible that are unlawful. Try Leviticus 18 for a long list.

Yes, I am aware that Illicit means unlawful. Paul was writing to the Gentiles and preaching to the Gentiles most of the time. His message to them was that they weren't under the law. Says that six times. Also Paul was speaking to the Gentiles in the Greek language. I really doubt Greek speaking Gentiles went to the Jewish Bible to define what inappropriate contentiea meant.
So I don't find Lev.18 to be a good way to define what Paul was speaking to the Corinthians, or Galatians.

 

[farout]

Yes, yes. But what if they have NOT remained single. What if they have disobeyed God, gone on, and remarried, meaning they are now in an adulterous relationship. Let's start with if they do not have children by the remarriage. Does God require them to move apart?

N0. you stay as you are. Confess your sin. You are forgiven by God. Go serve Him an do not do it again. God wants us to work where you are.

 

[Joe Green]

People who speak to the Holy Spirit convey a more stern approach to marriage than you might expect,

Even if your wife or husband are difficult to deal with you should ask for things from god, like passionate power, and Grace, to work wonders in the marriage.

This means, it's more held now, to hold tightly to your marriage, than to give it up, except over abuse, abuse is not tolerated even a little bit.

This is because, when you go to heaven, if you were married, the first question God will ask is what did you do with your spouse?

Why should you not remarry if your wife died?

Death breaks the covenant, then you can remarry.

 

[dayhiker]

Divorce also breaks the marriage ... other wise its not a divorce! As In Jesus' day then men put away their wife so they wouldn't have to return the bride price they paid for her.

 

[RDKirk]

Yes, yes. But what if they have NOT remained single. What if they have disobeyed God, gone on, and remarried, meaning they are now in an adulterous relationship. Let's start with if they do not have children by the remarriage. Does God require them to move apart?

Farout told you twice:

We stay as we are, we confess the sin. We are determine never to do that again. We go forth and serve King Jesus.

What else are you trying to get him to say? Why are you trying to turn it into something different?

 

[Joe Green]

Divorce also breaks the marriage ... other wise its not a divorce! As In Jesus' day then men put away their wife so they wouldn't have to return the bride price they paid for her.

Matt: 19:9 The words of Jesus,except it be for fornication, this is the exception
clause, Jesus gave us for divorce and remarriage very few people do not
understand what Jesus meant by fornication.Fornication is where a single person, never married. marries someone's Biblical covenant husband or wife.
There are two reasons for divorce and remarriage, fornication and death.
Read Luke, 16:18.

 

[Joe Green]

Matt: 19:9 The words of Jesus,except it be for fornication, this is the exception
clause, Jesus gave us for divorce and remarriage very few people do not
understand what Jesus meant by fornication.Fornication is where a single person, never married. marries someone's Biblical covenant husband or wife.
There are two reasons for divorce and remarriage, fornication and death.
Read Luke, 16:18.

These are marriages, which were Biblical covenant.

 

[dayhiker]

Matt: 19:9 The words of Jesus,except it be for fornication, this is the exception
clause, Jesus gave us for divorce and remarriage very few people do not
understand what Jesus meant by fornication.Fornication is where a single person, never married. marries someone's Biblical covenant husband or wife.
There are two reasons for divorce and remarriage, fornication and death.
Read Luke, 16:18.

Well, fornication comes from a Greek word, inappropriate contenteia that had been in use for centuries before it was used by the New Testament Church. To the Greeks this word had one meaning, prostitution. This is also what the Jews understood it to mean as this is the word the Jewish scholars used to translate the Jewish Bible in to Greek 200 years before Christ. So I don't see where you get your idea of this meaning.
Second, Jesus was asked a question about a debate that went on for a couple of years among the Jews. That was the meaning of Dt.24:1 "If a man marries a woman who becomes displeasing to him because he finds something indecent about her, and he writes her a certificate of divorce, gives it to her and sends her from his house." NIV They were discussing what was displeasing. This question wasn't about the reasons the Jews had for allowing one to divorce. So to say Jesus only allows for divorce if a spouse committed fornication is to take these verses out of their historical context.
Third the 2nd marriages weren't legal marriages because they weren't divorced from their 1st spouse because the men had sent these women out of their house and disobeyed the teaching of Moses of not giving them a bill of divorcement. This left these women in a place with no way of going on with their life. If they marry another man they are committing adultery. They husband isn't letting them go back with him. The woman didn't have the dowry her husband got when he married her so she has no way to make a living but to become a prostitute. Thus the Greek word inappropriate contenteia.
The Bill of Divorcement that the Jews write and gave to their wife said, "You are free to marry any man." Or a 2nd rendering said, "You are free to marry any Jewish man." When the woman had this paper she wasn't committing adultery when she remarried. In Jesus' day there was no concept of one was still married after a divorce. That is why I said divorce breaks the marriage. Again in Jesus' day some men didn't give their wife the Bill of divorcement as Moses told them to do. They had hardened their hearts and stole their wife's dowry. They weren't providing for their wife as was required. So their wife could have ended up having to prostitute herself to live unless someone had compassion on her and took her in. If it was a man who took her as his wife, then Jesus says they are committing adultery because the wife was married to two men.

 

[Joe Green]

I have given you NT meaning, not OT. Many things have changed under the GRACE dispensation that we now live in. You are making this complicated.
The gospel is simple, thank God.