Examples of Sacred Tradition

Philip_B

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I am sure the doctor of theology knew that by the time of Christ a body of writings had manifestly been established as Scripture

There is certainly a body of scholarly opinion that takes a different view, and there is evidence to support that.

Was at a bed and breakfast this past weekend and found the Jerome Biblical Commentary on the bookshelf! Flipped through it and read the section on the Dead Sea Scrolls.

One fascinating find was the book of Tobit: four manuscripts of the original Aramaic text of Tobit were found, and one in Hebrew. Recall that one of the most common Protestant arguments against the deuterocanonical books were that none were written in Hebrew (or Aramaic), but only Greek. Well, that argument is sunk by Tobit alone, but of course Protestants couldn’t know that until the 1950s when the scrolls began to be discovered. Judith, Sirach, and 1 Maccabees were also thought to be originally composed in Hebrew.

Also interesting: Sirach was read and copied by the Jews even after 90 AD, and it was recorded by Tosephta in Yadaim that it was a book that “did not soil the hands,” indicating reverence for it.

Esther was not in the Qumran collection, but deuterocanonical books as well as Apocryphal books (like Enoch, Jubilees, etc.) were also found, more evidence that the the “Jewish canon” was not a fixed collection at this time. Baruch 6 and Sirach manuscripts were also found in the Dead Sea Scrolls.​

So the early Church did not have a fixed OT canon to use, which is evidenced by the diversity of quotations and references that the Fathers made to protocanonical and deuterocanonical books. It is true that several Fathers wanted to remain closer to the Jewish canon (that was settling out in the 2nd century), but there was no universally accepted definition of the boundaries of the OT canon until centuries later.

https://heroicvirtuecreations.com/2011/10/24/the-dead-sea-scrolls-and-the-deuterocanonicals/
Devlin Rose - Catholic Apologist - October 2011
 
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Ron Gurley

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Hebrews 4:12
For the word of God is living and active and sharper than any two-edged sword, and piercing as far as the division of soul and spirit, of both joints and marrow, and able to judge the thoughts and intentions of the heart.

Matthew 24:35
Heaven and earth will pass away, but My words will not pass away.

The writing of Bible was complete ~80 AD.
It was basically "canonized" by ~200 AD.

God the Holy Spirit is the Supreme Interpreter.
 
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narnia59

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Hebrews 4:12
For the word of God is living and active and sharper than any two-edged sword, and piercing as far as the division of soul and spirit, of both joints and marrow, and able to judge the thoughts and intentions of the heart.

Matthew 24:35
Heaven and earth will pass away, but My words will not pass away.

The writing of Bible was complete ~80 AD.
It was basically "canonized" by ~200 AD.

God the Holy Spirit is the Supreme Interpreter.
Hebrews 4 is speaking of Jesus Christ, not Scripture.

12 For the word of God is living and powerful, and sharper than any two-edged sword, piercing even to the division of soul and spirit, and of joints and marrow, and is a discerner of the thoughts and intents of the heart. 13 And there is no creature hidden from His sight, but all things are naked and open to the eyes of Him to whom we must give account.

We will not be giving an account of our lives to Scripture, but we will to Christ. Scripture is God-breathed but Christ is God.

St. John tells us that the way we know the spirit of truth and the spirit of error is by those who listen to the apostles.
 
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prodromos

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Actually it should not be called Easter as it is the Christian celebration of Passover, not Ishtar
There is no etymological link between Easter (a word of German origin) and Ishtar (Messopotamian).
 
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4x4toy

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Hebrews 4 is speaking of Jesus Christ, not Scripture.

12 For the word of God is living and powerful, and sharper than any two-edged sword, piercing even to the division of soul and spirit, and of joints and marrow, and is a discerner of the thoughts and intents of the heart. 13 And there is no creature hidden from His sight, but all things are naked and open to the eyes of Him to whom we must give account.

We will not be giving an account of our lives to Scripture, but we will to Christ. Scripture is God-breathed but Christ is God.

St. John tells us that the way we know the spirit of truth and the spirit of error is by those who listen to the apostles.
I agree but we also have the written Word of God .. Jesus when tempted in the desert by the devil he replied each time ''it is written'' .. Then in Revelation we are warned not to add or take away from Gods Word and I think it applies from Genesis to Revelation .. This brings us back to this thread ''Traditions of men vs Gods Word'' . If it is not in the Word but required or expected by church then it is a useless tradition ..
 
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4x4toy

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There is no etymological link between Easter (a word of German origin) and Ishtar (Messopotamian).
What is the link between December 25th and Jesus birth . There's probably 5 or more gods said to born on Dec 25th but when Jesus was born the shepherds were in the fields at night when the great multitude of heavenly host appeared and announced his birth .. Who is responsible for starting that Dec 25th tradition ..
 
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Eloy Craft

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"How do you distinguish authentic development of faith?"
I asked you first.;)
In fact, even though this didn't work for the Greeks, Paul set a precedent that worked later for the Church.
This wasn't addressed directly either.:)
Which manner of adulation can constitute worship in Scripture (Words for worship in the NT), yet Catholics imagine that by playing word games then they can avoid crossing the invisible line between mere "veneration" and worship.
I didn't bring up the definition of worship. For obvious reasons you did. I brought up a method of communication between Christians and Pagans that Paul tried on the Greeks. That got carried off into oblivion.
The Truth was that rather than graven images being of the wrong God, the true God is not worshiped as such or by such. God has not changed, and the law against making graven images to be set up for men to bow down to them has not changed.
God has not changed, that's right, but people have. Why would laws meant to guide 5 year olds be the same for 15 year olds?
I don't know where you are getting your radical demonology from, but things really have not changed.
Christ brought eternity into time and human history. When He died, eternity entered Hades and divided the sheep souls from the goat souls. The land of the dead did in fact change profoundly. To become heaven and hell until the end of time.

Christ crushed Satan's head and he and the rest of the fallen angels have been judged. They know their time is short and they rage against the Woman and her children. I'm afraid you are wrong thinking nothing changed when God came down to earth.

The seduction of demons to bring souls to disobey God's transcendent moral laws has not changed, and thus to set up graven images of Mary etc for souls to bow down to, prostrate themselves before, in prayer and supplication, which is nowhere what is taught or exampled in Scripture except by pagans. Nor have the demons ceased to to seduce souls as yourself to believe it such is according to the word of God.
The demons got graven images stuck in your head. I'll tell you what a graven image is, it's that strawman that only exists in your imagination. It's an image graven (firmly fixed, carved, sculpted) deeply in the recesses of your mind.
PeaceByJesus said: The Truth was that rather than graven images being of the wrong God, the true God is not worshiped as such or by such. God has not changed, and the law against making graven images to be set up for men to bow down to them has not changed.
You gotta watch them graven images. They'll gitchya. Again, God didn't change, but... wouldn't you agree since Jesus came something changed? Like a New....something??
Indeed, and thus as said, to be consistent, you should follow the tradition of the OT canon of those who sat in the seat of Moses, such writings as were ascribed authority by being called "Scripture," "it is written," "The Lord/God said," by the Lord and His NT writers.
To be consistent then, Jesus respected Moses' authority and submitted to it. The chair of Moses presided until the coming of messiah, until the fullness of Truth entered time and history. Like God did before, Jesus picked another man named Simon, who Jesus named Peter, to sit in the teachers chair and guard the gifts of Christ so the People of God could continue making the Word visible to all the nations until like before, the coming of messiah .That's a truth of sameness found in the two ages. Therefore the social structure instituted by God, that is, a seat of authority that continues an authentic teaching that adheres to a teaching handed down and a written tradition that preserves the founding of the community and the teaching of the founders at the time.
The distinction is btwn using some light souls have by nature (cf. Romans 2:14) to point to The Light, versus "Christianizing" distinctively pagan religious practices,
The myth of ancient cultures were not produced by natural reason as a general rule. They originate mostly in stories of epic events that were demonstrations of the best of human nature. Most long lasting cultures have very noble beginnings that become stories remembered as oral tradition, then sometimes written traditions with temples and priests. The distinction is in what is given the glory. Pagans worship the powers of nature. . It's not a whole lot different from the Hebrew worship as it regards the form. It must conform to the human body and soul. The distinction is for the Hebrews it is the true God that is worshiped. not a creature, as you know, but God creator of every creature ever worshiped..
Just how is "their behavior towards Pagans isn't obsolete in the light of Christ" apart from physical warfare?
The people of God aren't taking their homeland of milk and honey away from peoples and nations who thought it was theirs. Now that those times are over we have our sights on the true and real promised land.

Bringing up OT laws against Pagan nations and religions have no value as a guide for moral behavior in regards to how pagan peoples should be treated by Christians today. Before Jesus it was a time to conquer and wipe out the idolatrous people and the memory of the creatures they worship. Now we want to bring Christ's Gospel of love to them.
If you really wish to refute my claim you need to have a convincing argument against my claim.
It's a good and holy way to treat the Pagans and their religion. The worship of the unknown God, if it had been directed at it's true object, as Paul attempted to do, would have become the worship of the true God. In fact, even though this didn't work for the Greeks, Paul set a precedent that worked later for the Church.
 
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narnia59

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I agree but we also have the written Word of God .. Jesus when tempted in the desert by the devil he replied each time ''it is written'' .. Then in Revelation we are warned not to add or take away from Gods Word and I think it applies from Genesis to Revelation .. This brings us back to this thread ''Traditions of men vs Gods Word'' . If it is not in the Word but required or expected by church then it is a useless tradition ..
Jesus replied to Satan "it is written"; Satan also cites Scripture to support his position. What Jesus demonstrates is that it's not enough to cite Scripture -- one also needs a legitimate authority to provide an authentic interpretation of Scripture. He is also not limited by Scripture. For example, even though Exodus 21:23 clearly teaches the concept of an 'eye for an eye and a tooth for a tooth', Jesus has no problem in saying, "but I say to you.."

Scripture differentiates between the traditions of man (Matthew 15:6, Colossians 2:8, Mark 7:7) and apostolic (Sacred) tradition (1 Cor 11:34, 2 Thessalonians 2:15, 2 Thessalonians 3:6, 1 Cor 11:2). It's my impression that this thread is about the latter.
 
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PeaceByJesus

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There is certainly a body of scholarly opinion that takes a different view, and there is evidence to support that.

Was at a bed and breakfast this past weekend and found the Jerome Biblical Commentary on the bookshelf! Flipped through it and read the section on the Dead Sea Scrolls.

One fascinating find was the book of Tobit: four manuscripts of the original Aramaic text of Tobit were found, and one in Hebrew. Recall that one of the most common Protestant arguments against the deuterocanonical books were that none were written in Hebrew (or Aramaic), but only Greek. Well, that argument is sunk by Tobit alone, but of course Protestants couldn’t know that until the 1950s when the scrolls began to be discovered. Judith, Sirach, and 1 Maccabees were also thought to be originally composed in Hebrew.

Also interesting: Sirach was read and copied by the Jews even after 90 AD, and it was recorded by Tosephta in Yadaim that it was a book that “did not soil the hands,” indicating reverence for it.

Esther was not in the Qumran collection, but deuterocanonical books as well as Apocryphal books (like Enoch, Jubilees, etc.) were also found, more evidence that the the “Jewish canon” was not a fixed collection at this time. Baruch 6 and Sirach manuscripts were also found in the Dead Sea Scrolls.​

So the early Church did not have a fixed OT canon to use, which is evidenced by the diversity of quotations and references that the Fathers made to protocanonical and deuterocanonical books. It is true that several Fathers wanted to remain closer to the Jewish canon (that was settling out in the 2nd century), but there was no universally accepted definition of the boundaries of the OT canon until centuries later.

https://heroicvirtuecreations.com/2011/10/24/the-dead-sea-scrolls-and-the-deuterocanonicals/
Devlin Rose - Catholic Apologist - October 2011
The fact that some parchments of the deuteros were found in the DSS does not attest to them being classed as Scripture, nor does some use of them by some ancients necessarily mean that.

The DSS also contains writings that neither of use hold as canonical, and Geisler states regarding the Dead Sea Scrolls at Qumran,

these included not only the community's Bible (the Old Testament) but their library, with fragments of hundreds of books. Among these were some Old Testament Apocryphal books. The fact that no commentaries were found for an Apocryphal book, and only canonical books were found in the special parchment and script indicates that the Apocryphal books were not viewed as canonical by the Qumran community. — The Apocrypha - Part Two Dr. Norman Geisler http://www.jashow.org/Articles/_PDFArchives/theological-dictionary/TD1W0602.pd

And despite some allusions or use of writings from the deuteros in the NT, only our canonical books are actually called Scripture, or cited as authoritative by "it is written," or "God said," "Moses said," or the like.

Moreover, if inclusion and some use of writings of the deuteros means these were classed as Scripture proper, then Luther must have, since Luther's translation contained apocryphal books, and IIRC sometimes quoted from such. For the Protestant attitude was not that these bookls were to but avoided, but that these could be were edifying, but were not fit for doctrine, and as Scripture.

And in the case of Tobit (which WP says may have been originally composed either in Aramaic or Hebrew, since fragments of Tobit in both languages have been discovered at Qumran) this status is clearly evident, as it provides a spurious fantastic tale, with a a women, Sarah, who has lost seven husbands because Asmodeus, the demon of lust, and "the worst of demons," abducts and kills every man she marries on their wedding night before the marriage can be consummated. (Supernatural family planning.)

And about a man, Tobias, who was sleeping with his eyes open while birds dropped dung into in his eyes (sound sleeper!) and blinded him. And who later is attacked by a fish leaping out of the river to devour him! But Raphael has him capture it and later he burns the fish’s liver and heart to drive away the demon Asmodeus away to Upper Egypt (to the Coptics I suppose), enabling him and Sarah to finally consummate his marriage.

The officially RC approved NAB Bible says in its intro to Tobit that it is folklore, as if that was not obvious, and in rejecting this as Scripture, we have not followed "cunningly devised fables", thank God, and which reads like so much of the nonsense in the Talmud, "Not giving heed to Jewish fables..." (Titus 1:14)

Then wee have Judith..., while I would say the Wisdom of Solomon comes closest to being like Scripture, but apparently is false attributed.
 
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Eloy Craft

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Here is an example of the prophetic quality in the dueterocanonical books. It describes the mind that was prevalent among the religious leaders and aristocracy. The mind that would knowingly kill the good of God in order to retain power and the status quo. When I read this I can't help but see the wicked hands of men that Jesus was given over to. This was the mindset of the Scribes and Pharisees and the Herodian priesthood. It is so precise it reads like a narrative of Jesus and the leaders in Jerusalem. Written long before Jesus. I can understand why it is rumoured to be removed on purpose by the Jewish leaders after they had killed Jesus.. The dueterocanon is rich in meaning and unquestionably inspired. imo


2 Wisdom 9-24

because this is our portion, and this our lot.
10 Let us oppress the righteous poor man;
let us not spare the widow
or regard the gray hairs of the aged.
11 But let our might be our law of right,
for what is weak proves itself to be useless.

12 “Let us lie in wait for the righteous man,
because he is inconvenient to us and opposes our actions;
he reproaches us for sins against the law,
and accuses us of sins against our training.
13 He professes to have knowledge of God,
and calls himself a child of the Lord.
14 He became to us a reproof of our thoughts;
15 the very sight of him is a burden to us,
because his manner of life is unlike that of others,
and his ways are strange.
16 We are considered by him as something base,
and he avoids our ways as unclean;
he calls the last end of the righteous happy,
and boasts that God is his father.
17 Let us see if his words are true,
and let us test what will happen at the end of his life;
18 for if the righteous man is God’s child, he will help him,
and will deliver him from the hand of his adversaries.
19 Let us test him with insult and torture,
so that we may find out how gentle he is,
and make trial of his forbearance.
20 Let us condemn him to a shameful death,
for, according to what he says, he will be protected.”

The author's summary
21 Thus they reasoned, but they were led astray,
for their wickedness blinded them,
22 and they did not know the secret purposes of God,
nor hoped for the wages of holiness,
nor discerned the prize for blameless souls;
23 for God created us for incorruption,
and made us in the image of his own eternity,
24 but through the devil’s envy death entered the world,
and those who belong to his company experience it.
 
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PeaceByJesus

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I asked you first.;)
This wasn't addressed directly either.:)
It was indeed. "How do you distinguish authentic development of faith?" was answered by
"the weight of Scriptural warrant, of substantiation in word and in power, which is how the NT church began," but which your protested was too vague for you. Perhaps reading the NT would help and seeing the use of Scripture, and its means of convincing souls.
I didn't bring up the definition of worship. For obvious reasons you did. I brought up a method of communication between Christians and Pagans that Paul tried on the Greeks. That got carried off into oblivion.
No,m it did not. Rather than oblivion, i argued that rather than Paul did not teach that things were be fine if they had set up graven images of the True God to worship, he taught that the living God was not worshiped that way, since He is beyond this. People did not put faith in Christ because of his appearance, but by what He said and did.
God has not changed, that's right, but people have. Why would laws meant to guide 5 year olds be the same for 15 year olds?
Because the law and laws I refer to are NOT that of typological dietary and ritual laws which is what the NT states were "shadows" "imposed on them." "in meat, or in drink, or in respect of an holyday, or of the new moon, or of the sabbath days, (Colossians 2:16) Which stood only in meats and drinks, and divers washings, and carnal ordinances, imposed on them until the time of reformation. (Hebrews 9:10)
Christ brought eternity into time and human history. When He died, eternity entered Hades and divided the sheep souls from the goat souls. The land of the dead did in fact change profoundly. To become heaven and hell until the end of time.
Christ crushed Satan's head and he and the rest of the fallen angels have been judged. They know their time is short and they rage against the Woman and her children. I'm afraid you are wrong thinking nothing changed when God came down to earth
.
Which simply does not change how the devil basically works, nor the flesh. A look at even history shows the devil seeking to reign via proxy servants by seducing souls with the victim-entitlement mentality employed in Gn. 3, and setting up graven images for souls to bow down and pray to or before. But because your church does it then you must impose a change upon how demons operate.
The demons got graven images stuck in your head. I'll tell you what a graven image is, it's that strawman that only exists in your imagination. It's an image graven (firmly fixed, carved, sculpted) deeply in the recesses of your mind.
No, actually my brain does not contain stone or porcelain or plastic images, but instead these graven (firmly fixed, carved, sculpted) images are set up right in and on your churches, inviting souls to worship before them. Thus your compelled recourse to "but demons have changes tactics."
You gotta watch them graven images. They'll gitchya. Again, God didn't change, but... wouldn't you agree since Jesus came something changed? Like a New....something??
And as said and showed, the NT manifests what changed, which was not the moral law, and thus we see the reiterations of OT moral laws. But nothing sanctioning your graven images, ir even setting up, exalting the [FONT=Arial, sans-serif] Mary of Catholicism,[/FONT] as a omnipotent ("by grace") demigoddess.
To be consistent then, Jesus respected Moses' authority and submitted to it. The chair of Moses presided until the coming of messiah, until the fullness of Truth entered time and history. Like God did before, Jesus picked another man named Simon, who Jesus named Peter, to sit in the teachers chair and guard the gifts of Christ so the People of God could continue making the Word visible to all the nations until like before, the coming of messiah .That's a truth of sameness found in the two ages.
No, that is not consistent with your principal of passed down tradition, that "the canon, as decided by the tradition that it documents, should by all rights be the accepted canon." And since tradition has authority via magisterial sanction or decree, by extension this basis for orthodoxy applies to whatever the magisterial seat holds to.

Thus RCs ignorantly invoke Matthew 23:2 as a basis for submitting to their magisterial office. Which means 1st century souls should have, rather than following some itinerant preachers and Preacher whom the magisterial seat rejected. Thus your "decided by the tradition that it documents" invalidates the NT church.

But the latter validates dissent from the historical magisterial seat based upon validation from a superior authority on Truth, since the church actually began in dissent from those who sat in the seat of Moses over Israel, (Mt. 23:2) who were the historical instruments and stewards of Scripture, "because that unto them were committed the oracles of God," (Rm. 3:2) to whom pertaineth" the adoption, and the glory, and the covenants, and the giving of the law, and the service of God, and the promises" (Rm. 9:4) of Divine guidance, presence and perpetuation as they believed, (Gn. 12:2,3; 17:4,7,8; Ex. 19:5; Lv. 10:11; Dt. 4:31; 17:8-13; Ps, 11:4,9; Is. 41:10, Ps. 89:33,34; Jer. 7:23) </p>

And instead they followed an itinerant Preacher whom the magisterium rejected, and whom the Messiah reproved by Scripture as being supreme, (Mk. 7:2-16) and established His Truth claims upon scriptural substantiation in word and in power, as did the early church as it began upon this basis. (Mt. 22:23-45; Lk. 24:27,44; Jn. 5:36,39; Acts 2:14-35; 4:33; 5:12; 15:6-21;17:2,11; 18:28; 28:23; Rm. 15:19; 2Cor. 12:12, etc.)
Pagans worship the powers of nature. . It's not a whole lot different from the Hebrew worship as it regards the form. It must conform to the human body and soul. The distinction is for the Hebrews it is the true God that is worshiped. not a creature, as you know, but God creator of every creature ever worshiped..
Your sophistry ignores the fact that the distinction is for the Hebrews was not simply that the true God was worshiped, but how, and thus, among other distinctions, there were not to make and set up representative graven images for people and even people to worship before, and which is nowhere abrogated under the New Covenant, in teaching or examples.
The people of God aren't taking their homeland of milk and honey away from peoples and nations who thought it was theirs. Now that those times are over we have our sights on the true and real promised land.
Actually the people of God are taking their homeland of milk and honey away from peoples and nations who thought it was theirs, since the meek shall inherit the earth, and "the god of this world" presumes it is his, and thus do the rebellious, and at the end the devil will "gather them together to battle: the number of whom is as the sand of the sea... on the breadth of the earth" against the people of God. (Revelation 20:8,9) But since you reject that prophecy as literal you will be in for a real surprise.
Bringing up OT laws against Pagan nations and religions have no value as a guide for moral behavior in regards to how pagan peoples should be treated by Christians today.
Which is just what prohomosexual polemicists try to argue, but the fact is the moral laws are transcendent and universal.
Before Jesus it was a time to conquer and wipe out the idolatrous people and the memory of the creatures they worship. Now we want to bring Christ's Gospel of love to them.
That only applies to how the church is to treat such as not being a theocracy (contrary to your history), not to the lawfulness of what they do. idolatry, homosexual relations, etc. are still sinful, even though the church is not to execute them. Thus your argument is invalid.
If you really wish to refute my claim you need to have a convincing argument against my claim.
Actually the problem is your unwillingness to be convinced.[/QUOTE]
 
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PeaceByJesus

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Jesus replied to Satan "it is written"; Satan also cites Scripture to support his position. What Jesus demonstrates is that it's not enough to cite Scripture -- one also needs a legitimate authority to provide an authentic interpretation of Scripture.
Just where do you get this from in the account of Mt. 4? The Lord did not invoke Himself here as authoritative as the basis of refutation, but countered the wresting of Scripture by the devil, who knew what was authoritative to the Lord, with Scripture, correcting the devil with it. So Bible Christians so often do so with Catholics and cults (and each other).

Including your misappropriation of this text to teach countering the wresting of Scripture with Scripture is not enough, but a legitimate authority in needed to provide an authentic interpretation of Scripture, which is what the devil presumed himself to be. Thus the issue is the basis for who just is providing an authentic interpretation of Scripture. If it is the premise of ensured veracity of the historical magisterium then you have no valid NT church. But if the basis is Scriptural substantiation in word and in power then you do.
He is also not limited by Scripture. For example, even though Exodus 21:23 clearly teaches the concept of an 'eye for an eye and a tooth for a tooth', Jesus has no problem in saying, "but I say to you.."
This also was not that of going beyond Scripture, but as the one prophesied who would"magnify the law, and make it honourable" ['âdar:glorious; expand] (Isaiah 42:21) then consistent with this "jus talionis" law being understood as a restriction upon unrestrained vengeance, the Lord takes it all the way to no retaliation, consistent with such scriptures as "Thou shalt not avenge, nor bear any grudge against the children of thy people, but thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself: I am the LORD." (Leviticus 19:18) "Say not thou, I will recompense evil; but wait on the LORD, and he shall save thee." (Proverbs 20:22)
 
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4x4toy

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Jesus replied to Satan "it is written"; Satan also cites Scripture to support his position. What Jesus demonstrates is that it's not enough to cite Scripture -- one also needs a legitimate authority to provide an authentic interpretation of Scripture. He is also not limited by Scripture. For example, even though Exodus 21:23 clearly teaches the concept of an 'eye for an eye and a tooth for a tooth', Jesus has no problem in saying, "but I say to you.."

Scripture differentiates between the traditions of man (Matthew 15:6, Colossians 2:8, Mark 7:7) and apostolic (Sacred) tradition (1 Cor 11:34, 2 Thessalonians 2:15, 2 Thessalonians 3:6, 1 Cor 11:2). It's my impression that this thread is about the latter.
So how do you use scripture ? I use it to build faith , to claim in authority and call on promises of God in power given us by God .. Can you claim the same by what man says .. And Jesus shut down the devil with scripture .. Satan can not cast out Satan .. Matthew 12:26 you can count on that
And yes, some can make scripture say what they want it to say but you can't slip that crap past me at this point, you ?
 
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narnia59

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Just where do you get this from in the account of Mt. 4? The Lord did not invoke Himself here as authoritative as the basis of refutation, but countered the wresting of Scripture by the devil, who knew what was authoritative to the Lord, with Scripture, correcting the devil with it. So Bible Christians so often do so with Catholics and cults (and each other).

Including your misappropriation of this text to teach countering the wresting of Scripture with Scripture is not enough, but a legitimate authority in needed to provide an authentic interpretation of Scripture, which is what the devil presumed himself to be. Thus the issue is the basis for who just is providing an authentic interpretation of Scripture. If it is the premise of ensured veracity of the historical magisterium then you have no valid NT church. But if the basis is Scriptural substantiation in word and in power then you do.
The devil does presume to be a legitimate authority to interpret Scripture although I suspect he knew he had no claim to that.

You said "The Lord did not invoke Himself here as authoritative as the basis of refutation, but countered the wresting of Scripture by the devil, who knew what was authoritative to the Lord". I think what is of primacy of importance for all here is to acknowledge that while Scripture is indeed God-breathed, Jesus Christ IS God. Scripture is not His authority. God has no authority other than Himself who has eternally existed before He ever breathed forth Scripture. He brought all things (including Scripture) forth by merely speaking that they be brought forth. He banished Satan from heaven long before Scripture ever existed and could remove him from existence completely by a mere "I say" and is no way dependent upon Scripture to have the power or authority to do that.

Christ himself is who gives his authority to the apostles and they are the foundation the valid NT church is built upon. They too become God-breathed.

Side note -- do you know the Bible references "authority" more than 80 times and not once does it call itself an authority? Yet you place it as an authority over God Himself.


This also was not that of going beyond Scripture, but as the one prophesied who would"magnify the law, and make it honourable" ['âdar:glorious; expand] (Isaiah 42:21) then consistent with this "jus talionis" law being understood as a restriction upon unrestrained vengeance, the Lord takes it all the way to no retaliation, consistent with such scriptures as "Thou shalt not avenge, nor bear any grudge against the children of thy people, but thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself: I am the LORD." (Leviticus 19:18) "Say not thou, I will recompense evil; but wait on the LORD, and he shall save thee." (Proverbs 20:22)

I would suspect that if anyone else quoted a Scripture and said, "but I say to you", you would quickly accuse them of ignoring Scripture to promote their own teaching. Jesus can do that because He is God and Scripture is subject to Him, not the other way around. He is indeed fulfilling prophecy when he takes Scripture written by Him in the first place to the next level.
 
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narnia59

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So how do you use scripture ? I use it to build faith , to claim in authority and call on promises of God in power given us by God .. Can you claim the same by what man says .. And Jesus shut down the devil with scripture .. Satan can not cast out Satan .. Matthew 12:26 you can count on that
And yes, some can make scripture say what they want it to say but you can't slip that crap past me at this point, you ?
The most straight forward thing that Scripture says about itself is Paul writing to Timothy -- "16 All scripture is inspired by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, and for training in righteousness, 17 that the man of God may be complete, equipped for every good work."

Keep in mind that Paul does not write this passage to a community of believers but rather to the young man he has groomed to be his successor and receive his governing and teaching authority as an apostle -- the only time "man of God" is used in the NT. And I whole-heardtedly agree that Scripture is profitable (newer translations say 'useful') for someone in that role to teach, reproof, correct and train those those they shepherd. That is a no brainer. But what the text does not say is that only Scripture is good for these things, or that Scripture is sufficient for all things. "Useful" in no way equates to "sufficient".

The way I personally use Scripture is to read and meditate on it and to get to know Christ better. There are days a particular verse can jump out and apply to a certain thing going on in my life at the moment and provide me guidance or consolation, and those moments are indeed Spirit-filled.

But when a question about what a particular verse means relating to a doctrinal question, I defer to the authority of the church. Paul tells Timothy things about the church too you know -- specifically that it is the 'pillar and bulwark of the truth' (1 Tim 3:15). He tells the Ephesians that it is through the church that the manifold wisdom of God is made known (Eph 3:10). So I defer to the church in how to understand those matters of doctrine that apply to all believers. G.K. Chesterson once said that "A Catholic is a person who has plucked up courage to face the incredible and inconceivable idea that something else may be wiser than he is." I'm not sure about that coming from courage in my case, but rather what was a slow realization that within the realm of "Scripture alone" there are significant disagreements about the most basic and important questions of the faith, and I have not been equipped to speak with authority about those issues based upon what I think Scripture means. Thankfully, the church has been.
 
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faroukfarouk

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The most straight forward thing that Scripture says about itself is Paul writing to Timothy -- "16 All scripture is inspired by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, and for training in righteousness, 17 that the man of God may be complete, equipped for every good work."

Keep in mind that Paul does not write this passage to a community of believers but rather to the young man he has groomed to be his successor and receive his governing and teaching authority as an apostle -- the only time "man of God" is used in the NT. And I whole-heardtedly agree that Scripture is profitable (newer translations say 'useful') for someone in that role to teach, reproof, correct and train those those they shepherd. That is a no brainer. But what the text does not say is that only Scripture is good for these things, or that Scripture is sufficient for all things. "Useful" in no way equates to "sufficient".

The way I personally use Scripture is to read and meditate on it and to get to know Christ better. There are days a particular verse can jump out and apply to a certain thing going on in my life at the moment and provide me guidance or consolation, and those moments are indeed Spirit-filled.

But when a question about what a particular verse means relating to a doctrinal question, I defer to the authority of the church. Paul tells Timothy things about the church too you know -- specifically that it is the 'pillar and bulwark of the truth' (1 Tim 3:15). He tells the Ephesians that it is through the church that the manifold wisdom of God is made known (Eph 3:10). So I defer to the church in how to understand those matters of doctrine that apply to all believers. G.K. Chesterson once said that "A Catholic is a person who has plucked up courage to face the incredible and inconceivable idea that something else may be wiser than he is." I'm not sure about that coming from courage in my case, but rather what was a slow realization that within the realm of "Scripture alone" there are significant disagreements about the most basic and important questions of the faith, and I have not been equipped to speak with authority about those issues based upon what I think Scripture means. Thankfully, the church has been.
Hi; so for example, if Scripture tells us: "For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus" (1 Timothy 2.5) and then some ecclesiastical authorities tell us something different, who are we to trust?
 
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4x4toy

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The devil does presume to be a legitimate authority to interpret Scripture although I suspect he knew he had no claim to that.

You said "The Lord did not invoke Himself here as authoritative as the basis of refutation, but countered the wresting of Scripture by the devil, who knew what was authoritative to the Lord". I think what is of primacy of importance for all here is to acknowledge that while Scripture is indeed God-breathed, Jesus Christ IS God. Scripture is not His authority. God has no authority other than Himself who has eternally existed before He ever breathed forth Scripture. He brought all things (including Scripture) forth by merely speaking that they be brought forth. He banished Satan from heaven long before Scripture ever existed and could remove him from existence completely by a mere "I say" and is no way dependent upon Scripture to have the power or authority to do that.

Christ himself is who gives his authority to the apostles and they are the foundation the valid NT church is built upon. They too become God-breathed.

Side note -- do you know the Bible references "authority" more than 80 times and not once does it call itself an authority? Yet you place it as an authority over God Himself.




I would suspect that if anyone else quoted a Scripture and said, "but I say to you", you would quickly accuse them of ignoring Scripture to promote their own teaching. Jesus can do that because He is God and Scripture is subject to Him, not the other way around. He is indeed fulfilling prophecy when he takes Scripture written by Him in the first place to the next level.
I can quote scripture, anoint with oil and see miracles, simple acts of faith that God uses at our request, I don't need mans approval or sanction . The Word goes out and does not return void . God backs up his Word and there is power in it and Jesus name .. James 4:3 , it is very simple ..
 
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narnia59

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I can quote scripture, anoint with oil and see miracles, simple acts of faith that God uses at our request, I don't need mans approval or sanction . The Word goes out and does not return void . God backs up his Word and there is power in it and Jesus name .. James 4:3 , it is very simple ..
As followers of Christ we are certainly empowered to do many things. That doesn't negate all the Scripture that speaks to the governing and teaching office held by the apostles. We are also exhorted as belivers to "Obey your leaders and submit to them; for they are keeping watch over your souls, as men who will have to give account. Let them do this joyfully, and not sadly, for that would be of no advantage to you." (Hebrews 13:17).
 
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