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EO Arguments Against Sola Scriptura

buzuxi02

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As long as you brought it up, there was another hardly-known split before the first well-known one (Assyrian Church of the East c434). All the Churches now known came out/departed from that first split as they excommunicated (325-Nice) and declared heretical (341-Antioch) the successors to Christ and the Apostles, the Quartodecimans.

Except for them, they all, as you say, rejected "it is written" to set up shop as they saw fit.

Obviosuly you have no clue about the Assyrian church. The Assyrian church welcomed certain Nestorians and were influenced by them. They accept the first 2 ecumenical councils .Nestorians found a home with the Assyrian church because they were outside the bounds of the empire. The assyrians ascribed to the antiochan school of theology and they mixed well the assyrian church. Aphraates 'the persian sage' is a Father of the Church and wrote in 345 a.d. Even though a seperation of 1600 years exist, i dare all to study and see whther there is a great difference, this will once again expose the sola scripture fraud. I dare all to study the coptic church and though seperated from the EO for 1500 years see if theres any major doctrinal differences (just one minor differences originating over the antiochan school and the alexandrian schools)

The quartodecimans do not exist. They evetually reconciled within a century. In fact the quartodeciman stronghold is what now is refered to as the Patriarchate of Constantinople. So no the quartodecimans were never a denomination they simply wished to preserve the date of Pascha as they always did on the exact day of nisan 14 not on the next sunday
 
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Blackknight

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And a pillar upholds - not invents.
And it says THE CHURCH is, not each individual person or denomination. It doesn't say the The Greek Orthodox Church is the Rule for the evaluation of teachings, it doesn't say the each one's views (Tradition) is the rule for the evaluation of the self same.


There is only One, Holy, Catholic and Apostolic Church. The Greek Orthodox are simply one of the many parts of the Orthodox Church which are all in full communion.

Greek Orthodox is the same as Russian Orthodox which is the same as Romanian Orthodox, etc. etc. There's just differences in typika and the language used but we are all united as one body of Christ.
 
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CaliforniaJosiah

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There is only One, Holy, Catholic and Apostolic Church.



Yup. As we confess every Sunday! As it is, was and ever shall be. Of course, that has absolutely nothing whatsoever to do with The Orthodox Church or The Wisconsin Evangelical Lutheran Church or The Catholic Church or The United Methodist Church, because the church is believers, not denominations.

But we are WAY off topic and perhaps hijacking the thread (forgive me, staff!!!!!!).



Back to the subject of what canon/rule/norma normans is embraced for the evaluation of positions, and the apologetics the EO is said to use to rebuking the embrace of Scripture as such.




.
 
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sunlover1

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Do you rely on your own interpretations and dare to say it is from the Holy Spirit?
Hi seashale,
What else can we rely on if not God?

These things write I unto thee, hoping to come unto thee shortly: But if I tarry long, that thou mayest know how thou oughtest to behave thyself in the house of God, which is the church of the living God, the pillar and ground of the truth.

"It is written" is still the rule in the church of the living God, the pillar and ground of the truth. The whole chapter is about the elders--written down so there is no mistake. As such, it is implying that those who add or subtract thereto have some problems.
.
Good observation.

Lamb there can be no sections in the Body of Christ. There is only a falling away. The gates of hades shall not prevail against her, says the scripture. But scripture also says that not a bone of Him was broken. The body of Christ was not fragmented, his bones not broken into a thousand different pieces. Do you see the allegory? Christ is the head and the Church his body where not a piece of him broken or splintered. it is one and visible. Do you see how denominationalism divides the body and rips it assunder thus Christ cannot view the sects as his body.
And your point would be that your denomination alone is the body?
Your speech sounds plausible for a sec until you compare it with Scripture.
Unfortunately, there was division even in the NT times.
It was recorded for us.
 
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Blackknight

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Sigh, you just don't get it. For church dogma we rely on scripture, usually the Septuagint or the Hebrew texts. Everything we do is backed by scripture as well.

The question is how do you interpret the scripture? Do you treat it like protestants do and decide for yourself or do you have a teacher, somebody to guide you? That is where Holy Tradition, the Church, and Ecumenical Councils come in.

I simply cannot read a passage of scripture and interpret it without comparing my results to patristic tradition. The same concept applies to all of our spiritual life, if I need guidance I go talk to a priest or an abbot. Even the liturgy itself is a work of the people, it is not a solo act.
 
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CaliforniaJosiah

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Sigh, you just don't get it. For church dogma we rely on scripture, usually the Septuagint or the Hebrew texts. Everything we do is backed by scripture as well.


Thank you. But, the question of the thread is WHAT is used as the rule/canon/norma normans for that doctrine? That's the issue of this thread (well, actually, the supposed EO agruments against using Scripture canonically). Of course, IF you are saying that Scripture is the sole SOURCE of dogma (another issue), then it seems quite likely such could be embraces as the sole norm for such....




The question is how do you interpret the scripture?


No. It's not.

Sola Scriptura is the praxis of embracing Scripture as the rule/canon/norma normans in the evaluation of norming. It's about norming, not hermeneutics. It doesn't even so much as even approach the issues of the HOW or WHO of hermeneutics. It ONLY deals with the issue of WHAT is embraced in norming as the canon. Apples and oranges.






Do you treat it like protestants do and decide for yourself or do you have a teacher
I don't want to hijack this thread with this entirely different issue, but actually, it's the RCC and LDS that insist on individual interpretation, each insisting that only ONE may interpret Scripture - itself.

Now, there are Protestants who also seek individual interpretation. None as radically as the RCC or LDS do, but yes - they exist. Some active here at CF are of this view. But it has absolutely nothing to do with Sola Scriptura since Sola Scriptura has absolutely nothing to do with interpretation - either the how or the who, it has to do with the embraced canon in norming.

But there are also Protestants who embrace public interpretation (I'm one of them). And there are several of us active here at CF. I think the "job" of interpretation belongs to the church - not the individual person or denomination, it is for US to do, not for ME to do. But we are WAY off topic here (and probably pressing the rule not permitted hijacking). Let's stick to the issue before us.





I simply cannot read a passage of scripture and interpret it without comparing my results to patristic tradition. The same concept applies to all of our spiritual life, if I need guidance I go talk to a priest or an abbot. Even the liturgy itself is a work of the people, it is not a solo act.

I could not agree more! It's one of the chief reasons I left the Catholic Church, but we are WAY off topic. Let's return to the issue of norming and the topic of Sola Scriptura. If you want to talk about hermenutics, please start a thread on that.


The following might help you......



The Official, Historic Definition of Sola Scriptura:


"The Scriptures are and should remain the sole rule and norm of all doctrine"
(Lutheran Formula of Concord, Solid Declaration, 9). "We pledge ourselves to the prophetic and apostolic writings of the Old and New Testaments as the only true norm according to which all teachers and teachings are to be judged" (Ditto, 3). "No human being's writings dare be put on a par with it, but ... everything must be subjected to it" (Ditto, 9).


"The Latin expression "sola scriptura" refers to the authority of the Holy Scriptures to serve as the sole norm (norma normans) for all that is officially confessed in the church." (Lutheran Church - Missouri Synod at official website)


Sola Scriptura IS....


An embrace of God's written word as the final "Rule" (staight edge) or "Canon" (measuring stick) or "norma normans" to serve as the final Standard, Plumbline as Christians evaluate positions, especially doctrine.




Sola Scriptura is NOT....


1. Doctrine. It's praxis, but yes it is an application of a doctrine - the doctrine of Scripture, which Catholics and Protestants share. Here is the Catholic position: "The Bible was inspired by God. Exactly what does that mean? It means that God is the author of the Bible. God inspired the penmen to write as God wished." Sola Scriptura applies this doctrine, but it itself is not a doctrine - it's praxis. Thus, we need to be clear as to the doctrine part (Scripture is God's inerrant holy written word) and the praxis part (using such as the norma normans). Sola Scriptura refers to the later.

2. Hermeneutics. It is not a praxis for the intepretation of Scriptures. It's not hermeneutics, it's norming. Bob says Jesus was 15 feet tall (a position he may or may not have come to by the interpretation of Scriptures). Sola Scriptura addresses the norming or evaluating of that position by establishing the Rule/Canon/Norma Normans.

3. Sola Toma or Sola Biblica. WHATEVER the Scripture is at that point, it is the Rule. Sola Scriptura "existed" just as much at Mt. Sinai as it does today, only the "size" of the Scripture was smaller. Christians (excluding Mormons) believe that the "canon" (authoritative books of Scripture) is closed so this is now a moot issue (except, perhaps, for the largely moot DEUTEROcanonical books about which there is no consensus but since no dogma comes from such anyway, it's moot to the praxis).

4. Arbitration. Obviously some process is needed to determine if the position "measures up" (arbitration) to the "measuring stick" (the Canon). Sola Scriptura does not address this issue; it only addresses the Canon issue. SOME who embrace the Rule of Scripture (Sola Scriptura) join the RCC in embracing private, individual arbitration (although rarely as radically or as extreme as the RCC does). This is called "private arbitration." SOME that embrace Sola Scriptura embrace corporate arbitration in various forms. This is called "public arbitration." It largely depends on whether one embraces the Holy Spirit and this process to be singular/individual or corporate/joint. But the Rule of Scripture deals with the Rule - not the arbitration according to that Rule.

5. Revelation. Sola Scriptura does not affirm that all divine revelation is confined to Scripture. Indeed, Scripture itself teaches that the heavens declare the glory of God. It's just that the praxis of Sola Scriptura does not use star gazing as the Canon for the evaluation of doctrines.



Some Notes:

1. TECHNICALLY, Sola Scriptura does NOT say that all dogma must be taught in the Bible (again, remember - its a praxis and not a teaching). However, this IS a ramification of the praxis. If Sam taught that Jesus was 15 feet tall, it is likely it would be arbitrated that Scripture does not "norm" this - thus we'd have an unnormed or abiblical teaching that we'd not regard as dogma. If Sam said that Jesus was born in Los Angeles, it is likely it would be arbitrated that Scripture reveals this to be in error and thus heresy. If Sam said that Jesus' mother was named Mary, it is likely it would be arbitrated that Scripture norms this and it is correct. Thus, for a teaching to be normed via this praxis, it would need to be found in Scripture to a suffient degree to be so arbitrated. Because this ramification is rather clear, it is sometimes mentioned in connection with the praxis - but it's not technically a part of it.


2. The Doctrine of Scripture says that SCRIPTURE is inerrant. The praxis of Sola Scriptura does not say that every use of such will be infallible. I may have a perfect hammer but it doesn't guarentee that I will make a perfect table. But it probably is better than using my finger.




Some quotes:


[FONT=Arial, Helvetica, adobe-helvetica, Arial Narrow]"Let God-inspired Scripture decide between us; and on whichever side be found doctrines in harmony with the word of God, in favor of that side will be cast the vote of truth."
[FONT=Arial, Helvetica, adobe-helvetica, Arial Narrow]Basil of Caesarea (c. 330 - 379 A.D.)


"In order to leave room for such profitable discussions of difficult questions, there is a distinct boundary line separating all productions subsequent to apostolic times from the authoritative canonical books of the Old and New Testaments. The authority of these books has come down to us from the apostles through the successions of bishops and the extension of the Church, and, from a position of lofty supremacy, claims the submission of every faithful and pious mind....In the innumerable books that have been written latterly we may sometimes find the same truth as in Scripture, butthere is not the same authority. Scripture has a sacredness peculiar to itself." - Augustine (Reply to Faustus the Manichaean, 11:5)



"The holy and inspired Scriptures are fully sufficient for the proclamation of the truth. St. Athanasius (Against the Heathen, I:3)

"Regarding the things I say, I should supply even the proofs, so I will not seem to rely on my own opinions, but rather, prove them with Scripture, so that the matter will remain certain and steadfast." St. John Chrysostom (Homily 8 On Repentance and the Church, p. 118, vol. 96 TFOTC)

"Let the inspired Scriptures then be our umpire, and the vote of truth will be given to those whose dogmas are found to agree with the Divine words." St. Gregory of Nyssa (On the Holy Trinity, NPNF, p. 327).

"We are not entitled to such license, I mean that of affirming what we please; we make the Holy Scriptures the rule and the measure of every tenet; we necessarily fix our eyes upon that, and approve that alone which may be made to harmonize with the intention of those writings." St. Gregory of Nyssa (On the Soul and the Resurrection NPNF II, V:439)

"What is the mark of a faithful soul? To be in these dispositions of full acceptance on the authority of the words of Scripture, not venturing to reject anything nor making additions. For, if ‘all that is not of faith is sin' as the Apostle says, and ‘faith cometh by hearing and hearing by the Word of God,' everything outside Holy Scripture, not being of faith, is sin." Basil the Great (The Morals, p. 204, vol 9 TFOTC).

"We are not content simply because this is the tradition of the Fathers. What is important is that the Fathers followed the meaning of the Scripture." St. Basil the Great (On the Holy Spirit, Chapter 7, par. 16)

For concerning the divine and holy mysteries of the Faith, not even a casual statement must be delivered without the Holy Scriptures; nor must we be drawn aside by mere plausibility and artifices of speech. Even to me, who tell you these things, give not absolute credence, unless you receive the proof of the things which I announce from the Divine Scriptures. For this salvation which we believe depends not on ingenious reasoning, but on demonstration of the Holy Scriptures. St. Cyril of Jerusalem (Catechetical Lectures, IV:17, in NPNF, Volume VII, p. 23.)

Neither dare one agree with catholic bishops if by chance they err in anything, but the result that their opinion is against the canonical Scriptures of God. St. Augustine (De unitate ecclesiae, chp. 10)





I hope that helps.


Pax


- Josiah





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Blackknight

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Thank you. But, the question of the thread is WHAT is used as the rule/canon/norma normans for that doctrine?

Are you asking what is the rule for using scripture as a rule? For us it would be Holy Tradition. Seems like a circular argument but what did they use before the scriptures existed? There's a lot of time between the creation of Adam and Moses writing the Torah.

That's the issue of this thread (well, actually, the supposed EO agruments against using Scripture canonically).

I do not believe anybody is arguing this, to do so would be heresy.
 
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jckstraw72

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I would agree the Church is the pillar and ground of Truth.
But honestly jckstraw, do not you and the CC view that great schism as a type of "confusion" that caused those 2 to split? :wave:

http://www.christianforums.com/t6790703/
Great Schism and effect on Christianity and Theology

yes, but as long as there remained an unconfused body of believers the Church remains.
 
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LittleLambofJesus

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jckstraw72

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Scripture cannot be the norma normans though, because anything written must be interpreted so there absolutely must be an authority outside the Scripture who does the interpreting. so when Jesus referenced Scripture He did so with the proper understanding in mind. The words without the proper meaning become meaningless.
 
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T

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From just Jesus alone, we have 50 examples of Jesus specifically saying, "Scripture says......" "It is written in Scirpture......" Etc. Typically, there is then a quote of such being uses normative.


On the first point, the Gospels record a selection of things that Christ did. Some of these actions were verbal statements. But referencing scripture was not the only thing Christ did.

It seems that sola scriptura selects one aspect of all the actions of Christ and posits it as the action of primary importance to the exclusion of the others. This fails to recognize the fact and importance of the wholeness of the Godman Christ.

The praxis, then, of sola scriptura selects among the praxes of Christ and norms for only one. Wresting an aspect from the context distorts both the aspect and fails to respect (where persons are involved) the person. It also distorts one's relationship with and knowing of the person. It reifies text and discards person.

The danger becomes that the now reified text replaces the Person or is mistaken for the Person of Christ. This seems to be a possible explanation for the centrality of logoi over experiencing the Logos in modern western worship. In some practices, the homily has become central and in its newly emphasized role demotes (and not infrequently discards) Eucharist and prayer. In short, it undermines the spiritual dialogue between God and man and prefers the logoi of man. Man speaks to himself, stays on his own level instead of "looking upward", stiving toward God.


Can you give me one example where Jesus mentions Byzantine worship? Much less, uses such normatively?

Just one will do.
This seems familiar; the "proper noun demand" is used to weed out all Churches that are not called by an appellation mentioned in (iirc) the adress portion of several epistles.

As I described before, the scriptural references for the form, content, action, and specific words of the EO Liturgy are found throughout the Old and New Testaments. I provided a link to a selection. The "proper noun demand" seems to me to be a deliberate non-response.

But there is an additional failure of recognition perhaps due to a lack of exposure to the Liturgy, or a bias born of the praxis of centralizing and reifying text; Liturgy is experienced.




Over 50 times, just Jesus used Scripture normatively. Can you give me one example where He notes that the liturgy of the EO is normative, one example where He used such as normatively. I'm not asking for ALL the examples where He said, "The Liturgy of the Eastern Orthodox Church says....." I'm not asking you to give 50 examples from Jesus, or 100 from Scripture - one is all I'm requesting.
The repetative nature of your questions is curious and worrying. As the praxis of sola scriptura seems to include the danger of replacing Person with reified text/scripture (as a 'stand-in' for Christ in His fullness; an "instead of Christ"), it is not unexpected that dialogue between human persons would also degrade. Thus, the failure to speak in more than repetitions, the failure to "dive in" and truly dialogue would be expected.

Just as the reified text replaces Person, so also then the text cannot be "plummed", and one is left with a shallow discursive. The text loses its potential depth and becomes a series of arabesques. Thus the text takes on, for the one who reifies it, a certain legalistic form. The utilization of the text becomes a matter of concretizations (statements regarded as 'rules') and leads to utilization of the spaces beside and between the concretized statements.

In short, one looks for legal oppurtunities (a method that, in part, the pharisees and scribes used). This sort of rationalising and loopholing allows and even encourages one to assign to or find what one wants (whatever that may be) in the text. Thus, concretized into a legalised entity, the reified text escapes the person of Christ and becomes "I make the Christ I prefer" from the concretizations, the spaces between and the spaces beside the concretizations. The Logos, replaced with the logoi becomes whatever I can make it say.





Can you share just one example where Jesus uses the rule/canon/norma normans of a particular EO chant, noting such?

You said He did. I'm not asking for ALL the cases of such, just one. Where He specifically is using some EO chant, notes such, and is using such normatively.
As film was not yet invented, and the "proper name demand" has become your legal requirement for the reified text, you have thus disallowed the actual doing of Christ with a game designed to find for yourself a victory ^_^

It does not require a musicologist to hear the similarity between EO and Jewish chant. One only needs to listen. As for the utilization of the Ode form in EO chant ( a form mentioned by Paul), for this you may want to consult a specialized source -- unless you are familiar with the Ode and can thus conduct the analysis yourself.




Please share at least one example where Jesus says, "Church architecture in the Greek Orthodox Church says/teaches......" and then uses such normatively. You said He did. I'd just like at leasst one example. Thanks.
Understood properly, scripture is Christocentric. Architecture, chant, worship, all the elements of Liturgy are both thematically and physically Christocentric. Thus, as we learn through our bodies (all the senses and the brain) as well as in our spirtual heart, the Liturgy points to Christ and teaches Christ to the whole of the human person.

The persistent utilization of the reified text, having skipped Person and persons, leaves one unaware of the Christocentric nature of Liturgy (and perhaps scripture). Thus text becomes the norm, not the person of Christ.
And human persons are treated as brains, not whole persons with bodies that can learn of Christ and seek embrace Him as Person. Thus one is likely to fail to understand the experiential role and the Christocentrism of Liturgy. So, of course one would miss both the scriptural references and the interweaving of scriptura and Liturgy.

If this and other conversations on this board are any indication of the result of persistent use of the praxis of sola sola scriptura, its use can lead to shallowness, a failure - even inability - to dive in and soar upwards to the Person of Christ. And an inability to dialogue with humans; those who are created in the image and toward the likeness of the Person of Christ. Who is the Logos, but not a text.
 
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Sphinx777

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Scripture cannot be the norma normans though, because anything written must be interpreted so there absolutely must be an authority outside the Scripture who does the interpreting.

BentoXVI-29-10052007.jpg


:angel: :angel: :angel: :angel: :angel: :angel: :angel: :angel: :angel: :angel: :angel: :angel: :angel: :angel: :angel: :angel: :angel: :angel: :angel: :angel: :angel: :angel:


:thumbsup: :thumbsup: :thumbsup: :thumbsup: :thumbsup: :thumbsup: :thumbsup:

 
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CaliforniaJosiah

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Are you asking what is the rule for using scripture as a rule?


No. Of course, the issue of this thread is not how to interpret Scripture (or anything esle) or WHO may do it. All that belongs to the question of hermeneutics. A good subject, but entirely different than the subject before us. This one is about the embraced canon/rule in norming.


IF you are saying that the EO uses SCRIPTURE as the rule/canon/norma normans - that's Sola Scriptura. Well.... not necessarily; if you are saying that such is THE canon/rule or at least the final, ultimate rule/canon , that is Sola Scriptura.





what did they use before the scriptures existed?

Yes, we'd need to go back before 1400 BC, some 3400 years ago.....

I'm just a tad bit wondering what that has to do with now, however. It's kinda like asking what was the fuel used in automobiles before their were cars? Well, they probably didn't, but that doesn't mean the question can't be addressed NOW.

They had Patriarchs and Judges I guess. I guess all this would be relevant if we lived 3400 years ago or more....

But we are here in 2009, discussing what is the best rule for the world's 2.2 billion Christians to us NOW as WE address the issue of evaluating the correctness of positions. It COULD be a different answer would be relevant 60,000 years ago, but that seems relevant only if we were going into a time machine, back to 60,000 BC.




I do not believe anybody is arguing this, to do so would be heresy.

Perhaps for the EO, the issue is not whether Scripture is to be embraced canonically but rather whehter such is under or just a subset of the EO's own views: EO Tradition? Such is the case with the RCC and LDS, but I just don't yet fully understand what is the norma normans in the EO, only that according to the opening poster, the EO is against using Scripture as such (The Rule of Scripture, Sola Scriptura). It MAY be the "sola" part it has a problem with, or it may be an issue of its relationship with the veiws of the EO. In the Lutheran/Catholic debate, we both embrace Tradition and Scripture (both rather equally, albeit we have SLIGHTLY different concepts of Tradition), we use them very similarly in hermenetuics but we use them differntly in norming. Catholics use Tradition (their own) and then Scripture (which it insists MUST agree with its Tradition - effectively eliminating it's normative function) whereas Lutherans place Scripture first and THEN Tradition as explaning such. Our debate is more one of ORDER and FUNCTION in norming. Perhaps my issue in the EO would be similar.




.
 
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jckstraw72

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whoever interprets Scripture for the Lutherans would be the actual norma normans, not the mere words of Scripture. all writings must be interpreted and thats really the important part -- how the words are understood, not just ink on a page
 
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CaliforniaJosiah

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On the first point, the Gospels record a selection of things that Christ did. Some of these actions were verbal statements. But referencing scripture was not the only thing Christ did.


Of course. Of course, such is not permission to ASSUME Jesus TAUGHT dogmas where there is zero indication of such. Such is the fundamental problem in Mormonism, the ASSUMPTION that there's all the "Second Testimony" or what we sometimes see in other denominations, "the Apostles taught this...." but when you ask "where?" you get a blank look. I could ANYONE could say, "Jesus said that Josiah is the smartest guy alive!" But if there's no evidence that He did, is that good to ASSUME? DOGMATICALLY? And if I can do it, why not Joseph Smith or Mary Baker Eddy? Maybe what we need is some record of what Jesus and the Apostle said, one in writing, one ALL PARTIES involved in the discussion agree is accurate, sound, reliable - and KNOWABLE? Ah, that's the question of this thread. WHAT should we use as the canon, the norma normans? IF the view of Josiah about Josiah is the rule for what Josiah says about Josiah, we are apt to conclude that what Josiah says about Josiah agrees with the rule/canon of what Josiah says about Josiah - but is THAT the most sound rule for the determination of whether what Josiah says is correct???? Maybe we need something beyond, above, outside of Josiah.... It would be ideal if GOD wrote something, wouldn't it?




It seems that sola scriptura selects one aspect of all the actions of Christ and posits it as the action of primary importance to the exclusion of the others. This fails to recognize the fact and importance of the wholeness of the Godman Christ.


Well, if you have evidence of what Jesus said that is NOT included in the Bible, then such really should be submitted for inclusion in the Scriptures. I kinda wonder why no one has even suggested that in 2000 years. Now, I realize that Mary Baker Eddy and Joseph Smith think He taught things not contained in the Bible, but there's no consensus at all beyond individual denominations about that. Again, if you have historic, ecumenically accepted writtings with the words of Jesus - containing dogmas which He din't teach in our 27 NT books, let's see them.




The praxis, then, of sola scriptura selects among the praxes of Christ and norms for only one.


What other canon/norm did Jesus use? We know he used Scripture normatively some 50 times. But when did He use the addtional norms of the EO? I've asked for at least one example of each of them, repeatedly I've asked for this, but so far no one has supplied such.







As I described before, the scriptural references for the form, content, action, and specific words of the EO Liturgy are found throughout the Old and New Testaments.


Nice, but moot. If you are claiming that Jesus used the EO Liturgy as norma normans, then please supply at least one example. A case where Jesus taught something, then held such up to the canon of the EO Liturgy and said (as He did some 50 times with Scripture), "As the Eastern Orthodox Liturgy says...." Or "As it is stated in the Eastern Orthodox Liturgy....." and then such is given. I'm NOT asking for every single example, just one would help.

Right now, we have the agreement that Jesus used Scripture normatively, canonically. But we have the claim that Jesus used a host of OTHER things, including a rather long list of things exclusive to your denomination: The church designs of the EO, a chant of the EO, a liturgy of the EO, etc., etc., etc. But so far, no one has been able to produce a single example of ANY of these EVER been used by Jesus normatively (in fact, no examples of Him so much as mentioning any of them - at all, normatively or not). So, it seems to ME, Jesus used one thing normatively (although very often) and that is Scripture.








It does not require a musicologist to hear the similarity between EO and Jewish chant. One only needs to listen.

Wonderful. Although, how does the Jewish chant serve as the norma normans for determining, for example, if the Bishop of Rome is infallible - as one denomination among us states, dogmatically? If one is going to condemn such a few - perhaps even excommunicate and conduct wars over such - what notations in the Chant does one use to substantiate such? Either to affirm or deny the Dogma of Papal Infallibility and Superiority?

Can you show me an example in the Bible where either a Jewish or EO chant is used canonically, normatively? It might help me understand you better if I could see an example of it being so used.




Now, IF Orthodox doesn't concern itself with correctness or error, doctrine or heresy, true or false - if it regards all such as moot (and thus has no teachings it embraces) or rather embraces pure relativism, then perhaps the entire topic of this thread is moot. I just don't know. But IF such things matter, then norming is accepted as sound and necessary. My question then is this: WHAT is embraced as the norma normans for such? IF it is as it is in the RCC, the views embraced by the self same (they call such "Tradition"), then self is simply looking to see if self agrees with self. IMHO, this actually is a circumvention of norming, it has replaced "is it true?" with "do I agree with myself?"




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whoever interprets Scripture for the Lutherans would be the actual norma normans, not the mere words of Scripture. all writings must be interpreted and thats really the important part -- how the words are understood, not just ink on a page



1. This thread is not about hermeneutics. IF you want to talk about hermeneutics - including the issues of HOW and WHO, then I'd invite you to start a thread on that. This thread is about the embraced canon for the evaluating of positions. Norma normans is not interpretation, it is the embraced rule.

2. Yes, all writings must be interpreted. A good subject for another day and thread. One I'd enjoy discussing. But we have an entirely different issue before us here in this thread. One of the embraced rule/canon.





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Of course. Of course, such is not permission to ASSUME Jesus TAUGHT dogmas where there is zero indication of such. Such is the fundamental problem in Mormonism, the ASSUMPTION that there's all the "Second Testimony" or what we sometimes see in other denominations, "the Apostles taught this...." but when you ask "where?" you get a blank look. I could ANYONE could say, "Jesus said that Josiah is the smartest guy alive!" But if there's no evidence that He did, is that good to ASSUME? DOGMATICALLY? And if I can do it, why not Joseph Smith or Mary Baker Eddy? Maybe what we need is some record of what Jesus and the Apostle said, one in writing, one ALL PARTIES involved in the discussion agree is accurate, sound, reliable - and KNOWABLE? Ah, that's the question of this thread. WHAT should we use as the canon, the norma normans? IF the view of Josiah about Josiah is the rule for what Josiah says about Josiah, we are apt to conclude that what Josiah says about Josiah agrees with the rule/canon of what Josiah says about Josiah - but is THAT the most sound rule for the determination of whether what Josiah says is correct???? Maybe we need something beyond, above, outside of Josiah.... It would be ideal if GOD wrote something, wouldn't it?

What Christ was described as doing in scripture was more than reference scripture; referencing scripture was not His only action. Sola scriptura selects one action and discards His other actions. This is inconsistent and reifies iteration and text. It reduces the person of Christ to a brain and a tongue. It replaces the person of Christ with a textual reification.







Well, if you have evidence of what Jesus said that is NOT included in the Bible, then such really should be submitted for inclusion in the Scriptures. I kinda wonder why no one has even suggested that in 2000 years. Now, I realize that Mary Baker Eddy and Joseph Smith think He taught things not contained in the Bible, but there's no consensus at all beyond individual denominations about that. Again, if you have historic, ecumenically accepted writtings with the words of Jesus - containing dogmas which He din't teach in our 27 NT books, let's see them.
Why are your only examples of others always given a negative tinge; it renders a sort of "guilt by association" without regard for the argument being made.







What other canon/norm did Jesus use? We know he used Scripture normatively some 50 times. But when did He use the addtional norms of the EO? I've asked for at least one example of each of them, repeatedly I've asked for this, but so far no one has supplied such.
Thus, you seem to argue that of the things Christ did which are described in scripture, only the action of verbalizing in reference to scripture is of value. As before, this dissects the wholeness of person and replaces the whole with tongue and brain. It thus denies the importance of the Incarnation and implies that the Incarnation is superfluous; another Moses would have been sufficient.










Nice, but moot. If you are claiming that Jesus used the EO Liturgy as norma normans, then please supply at least one example. A case where Jesus taught something, then held such up to the canon of the EO Liturgy and said (as He did some 50 times with Scripture), "As the Eastern Orthodox Liturgy says...." Or "As it is stated in the Eastern Orthodox Liturgy....." and then such is given. I'm NOT asking for every single example, just one would help.
Given your failure to supply any statement of Christ indicating which books to include in the NT canon, I find it at best inconsistent that you would require a higher standard from a "non sola scripturist" than from a sola scripturist ^_^

Can you reference scripture that states the term "sola scriptura" ? Of course not. Yet you keep arguing its validity. And you seem to be a sola scriptura adherent ....

Right now, we have the agreement that Jesus used Scripture normatively, canonically. But we have the claim that Jesus used a host of OTHER things, including a rather long list of things exclusive to your denomination: The church designs of the EO, a chant of the EO, a liturgy of the EO, etc., etc., etc. But so far, no one has been able to produce a single example of ANY of these EVER been used by Jesus normatively (in fact, no examples of Him so much as mentioning any of them - at all, normatively or not). So, it seems to ME, Jesus used one thing normatively (although very often) and that is Scripture.
Again, you seem to select one action of Christ and then call that one action the whole Christ.





Wonderful. Although, how does the Jewish chant serve as the norma normans for determining, for example, if the Bishop of Rome is infallible - as one denomination among us states, dogmatically? If one is going to condemn such a few - perhaps even excommunicate and conduct wars over such - what notations in the Chant does one use to substantiate such? Either to affirm or deny the Dogma of Papal Infallibility and Superiority?

Can you show me an example in the Bible where either a Jewish or EO chant is used canonically, normatively? It might help me understand you better if I could see an example of it being so used.
The Bible does not contain pictures, nor was there film in that era; you're really stretching ^_^
Now, IF Orthodox doesn't concern itself with correctness or error, doctrine or heresy, true or false - if it regards all such as moot (and thus has no teachings it embraces) or rather embraces pure relativism, then perhaps the entire topic of this thread is moot. I just don't know. But IF such things matter, then norming is accepted as sound and necessary. My question then is this: WHAT is embraced as the norma normans for such? IF it is as it is in the RCC, the views embraced by the self same (they call such "Tradition"), then self is simply looking to see if self agrees with self. IMHO, this actually is a circumvention of norming, it has replaced "is it true?" with "do I agree with myself?"
It seems the utilization of reified text has shown its resulting transformtion in action:

"Even when living people have a conversation we very often hear not a dialogue, but two canned monologues." M.L. Gasparov

Thats hardly a hopeful indication for bridging the distance between heaven and earth.
 
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What Christ was described as doing in scripture was more than reference scripture; referencing scripture was not His only action. Sola scriptura selects one action and discards His other actions. This is inconsistent and reifies iteration and text. It reduces the person of Christ to a brain and a tongue. It replaces the person of Christ with a textual reification.
-snip-

Perhaps you are arguing for this:

2 Cor. 3:3 being manifested that you are a letter of Christ, cared for by us, written not with ink but with the Spirit of the living God, not on tablets of stone but on tablets of human hearts.

Aside from the fact that it is written, how does an EO know that an RC is wrong (or vice-versa)? What rule/plumbline do you use? Each side, I suppose, can easily quote Tradition/ECF for their side. So what does one use?
 
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