jgr, the revealing of the man of sin, his act of going into the temple, sitting, claiming to be God - as that is what it says in 2thessalonians, leading into the Day of the Lord (Christ)....
1. Chrysostom lived 400 years after the temple was destroyed. So the Roman Empire, in Chrysostom's time, could not be the element preventing the man of sin's action to abominate the temple.... since there was no temple around.
2. The Day of the Lord has not come although the Roman Empire faded from power fifteen hundred years ago, and Nero was the last Caesar (the Julio-Claudian family) in 67 AD, thereabouts. So the Roman Empire gone, no temple has been built so far, negates Chrysostom's opinion on the Roman Empire being what is removed.
The Roman Empire end times version in the form of the EU is the spawning grounds for the person who becomes the Antichrist, then reveals himself as the man of sin, then the beast in Revelation. So it is actually just the opposite of what Chrysostom thought. The fourth kingdom of Daniel 7 has to be in place for the emergence of the little horn.
Douggg,
1. The early Church understood Paul to be referring to the spiritual temple i.e. the Church, rather than a literal temple. Whenever he uses the Greek word naon or naos or its derivatives in his epistles, he uses it in the spiritual sense.
1 Corinthians 3:16 N-NMS
GRK: οἴδατε ὅτι
ναὸς θεοῦ ἐστὲ
NAS: Do you not know that you are a temple of God
KJV: that ye are the temple of God, and
INT: Know you that temple of God you are
1 Corinthians 3:17 N-AMS
GRK: τις τὸν
ναὸν τοῦ θεοῦ
NAS: destroys the temple of God,
KJV: defile the temple of God,
INT: anyone the temple of God
1 Corinthians 3:17 N-NMS
GRK: ὁ γὰρ
ναὸς τοῦ θεοῦ
NAS: will destroy him, for the temple of God
KJV: destroy; for the temple of God is
INT: indeed [the] temple of God
1 Corinthians 6:19 N-NMS
GRK: σῶμα ὑμῶν
ναὸς τοῦ ἐν
NAS: that your body is a temple of the Holy
KJV: body is the temple of the Holy Ghost
INT: body of you a temple of the in
2 Corinthians 6:16 N-DMS
GRK: δὲ συνκατάθεσις
ναῷ θεοῦ μετὰ
NAS: agreement has the temple of God
KJV: agreement hath the temple of God
INT: moreover agreement a temple of God with
2 Corinthians 6:16 N-NMS
GRK: ἡμεῖς γὰρ
ναὸς θεοῦ ἐσμὲν
NAS: with idols? For we are the temple of the living
KJV: ye are the temple of the living God;
INT: we indeed a temple of God are
Ephesians 2:21 N-AMS
GRK: αὔξει εἰς
ναὸν ἅγιον ἐν
NAS: into a holy temple in the Lord,
KJV: unto an holy temple in the Lord:
INT: increases to a temple holy in
2 Thessalonians 2:4 N-AMS
GRK: εἰς τὸν
ναὸν τοῦ θεοῦ
NAS: that he takes his seat in the temple of God,
KJV: sitteth in the temple of God, shewing
INT: in the temple of God
Paul is therefore referring to someone or something that is located within the Church, claiming to be God. As Albert Barnes describes:
"...The usage in the New Testament would not lead us to restrict this language to an edifice, or a “church,” as the word is now commonly used, but rather to suppose that it denotes the church as a society, and the idea is, that the Antichrist here referred to would present himself in the midst of that church as claiming the honors due to God alone."
The papacy not only "sat" within the church, but claimed to
be the only true church.
The popes also claimed to be God, or Christ, or Their sole representative:
Leo XIII: We hold upon this earth the place of God Almighty.
Pius X: The Pope is not only the representative of Jesus Christ, but he is Jesus Christ hidden under the veil of the flesh. Does the Pope speak? It is Jesus Christ who speaks.
Pius XI: I am God on the earth.
Boniface: Furthermore, we declare, we proclaim, we define that it is absolutely necessary for salvation that every human creature be subject to the Roman Pontiff.
Additional such quotations exist.
The Pope's Latin title is Vicarius Fileii Dei, Vicar of the Son of God.
2. Does the understanding of the temple being spiritual, and the apostasy being the first event, clarify that?