Does the "fornication" exception for divorce not apply today?

[Dave L]

Since they were executed, they weren't divorced, right? Death dissolves a marriage without a divorce having to happen. If so, we have a difference between the old law and what Jesus taught in Matthew 19, proving the latter is different from the former.

Divorce does not end the marriage. It only separates people who are still married.

 

[Radagast]

Divorce does not end the marriage.

Well, yes, it does. It's not just separation.

Whether divorce is possible in particular circumstances is another question.

 

[Dave L]

Well, yes, it does. It's not just separation.

Whether divorce is possible in particular circumstances is another question.

Pauls says only death ends a marriage.
“So then if, while her husband liveth, she be married to another man, she shall be called an adulteress: but if her husband be dead, she is free from that law, so that she is no adulteress, though she be married to another man.” Romans 7:3 (NCPB)

 

[Radagast]

Pauls says only death ends a marriage.
“So then if, while her husband liveth, she be married to another man, she shall be called an adulteress: but if her husband be dead, she is free from that law, so that she is no adulteress, though she be married to another man.” Romans 7:3 (NCPB)

You are ignoring e.g. 1 Corinthians 7:15, which permits divorce.

 

[Dave L]

You are ignoring e.g. 1 Corinthians 7:15, which permits divorce.

It does not. If divorce ended a marriage, it would not be adultery when you remarry.

 

[RDKirk]

It does not. If divorce ended a marriage, it would not be adultery when you remarry.

If there were no difference between divorce and separation, Paul would not have had instructions for believers married to believers that were different from believers married to pagans.

He instructed believers married to believers only to separate; believers married to pagans could be divorced if the pagan mate could not be pleased by the marriage.

Jesus never spoke on the situation of a believer married to a pagan.

 

[Dave L]

If there were no difference between divorce and separation, Paul would not have had instructions for believers married to believers that were different from believers married to pagans.

He instructed believers married to believers only to separate; believers married to pagans could be divorced if the pagan mate could not be pleased by the marriage.

Jesus never spoke on the situation of a believer married to a pagan.

“but I say unto you, that whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery.” Matthew 5:32 (NCPB)

 

[RDKirk]

“but I say unto you, that whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery.” Matthew 5:32 (NCPB)

Jesus was speaking only to believers. Jesus did not address, nor does He expect anyone to control, what pagans do.

 

[Dave L]

Jesus was speaking only to believers. Jesus did not address, nor does He expect anyone to control, what pagans do.

Believers can divorce but cannot remarry while their spouse is alive. But divorce is pagan law. Not ordained for believers in the NC.

 

[Radagast]

Believers can divorce but cannot remarry while their spouse is alive.

Says you.

The Bible says something different, for example in 1 Corinthians 7.

 

[Radagast]

“but I say unto you, that whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery.” Matthew 5:32 (NCPB)

Matthew 5:32: But I say to you that everyone who divorces his wife, except on the ground of sexual immorality, makes her commit adultery, and whoever marries a divorced woman commits adultery.

 

[Dave L]

Matthew 5:32: But I say to you that everyone who divorces his wife, except on the ground of sexual immorality, makes her commit adultery, and whoever marries a divorced woman commits adultery.

"except for sexual immorality" carried the death sentence. Only after death could one remarry.

 

[Dave L]

Says you.

The Bible says something different, for example in 1 Corinthians 7.

Bound = enslaved, not married. Why would Paul need to tell the separated they are not bound to the deserter if it broke the marriage bond?

 

[RDKirk]

Bound = enslaved, not married. Why would Paul need to tell the separated they are not bound to the deserter if it broke the marriage bond?

As Paul is speaking to the Corinthians, he does indeed use "bound" to refer to marriage:

Are you bound to a wife? Do not seek to be free. Are you free from a wife? Do not seek a wife. - 1 Corinthians 7:28

A woman is bound to her husband as long as he lives. But if her husband dies, she is free to marry anyone she wishes, but he must belong to the Lord. -- 1 Corinthians 7:28

In this letter, Paul consistently uses bondage to refer to marriage, and he is still using bondage to refer to marriage in Corinthians 7:15.

 

[RDKirk]

"except for sexual immorality" carried the death sentence. Only after death could one remarry.

Jesus cancelled the death sentence for adultery. We've just discussed this.

 

[Dave L]

Jesus cancelled the death sentence for adultery. We've just discussed this.

Under the New Covenant. But he was under the Old Covenant until the Cross.

 

[Dave L]

As Paul is speaking to the Corinthians, he does indeed use "bound" to refer to marriage:

Are you bound to a wife? Do not seek to be free. Are you free from a wife? Do not seek a wife. - 1 Corinthians 7:28

A woman is bound to her husband as long as he lives. But if her husband dies, she is free to marry anyone she wishes, but he must belong to the Lord. -- 1 Corinthians 7:28

In this letter, Paul consistently uses bondage to refer to marriage, and he is still using bondage to refer to marriage in Corinthians 7:15.

It still remains, bound = Greek for a slave. Marriage is a different word altogether.

 

[Radagast]

.

 

[Dave L]

Incorrect. Paul never uses that Greek word (δέω) for slavery.

But in Romans 7:2, 1 Corinthians 7:27, and 1 Corinthians 7:39, he uses it for marriage.

It's a form. But why doesn't he use "married" instead of the root of slave?

 

[Radagast]

Under the New Covenant. But he was under the Old Covenant until the Cross.

Once you've started telling Jesus that He was wrong, you are lost to rational theological debate.