Does the Bible prescribe a baptismal formula?

[Kilk1]

Hello! Does the Bible teach a formula that is to be stated at baptism? Thanks!

 

[Jeshu]

In My tradition the pastor baptises the person in the name of the Father, Son and Holy Spirit. Not sure of it is a formula or rather the truth of the baptism.

 

[HTacianas]

Hello! Does the Bible teach a formula that is to be stated at baptism? Thanks!

Mat 28:19 - “Go therefore and make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit,

 

[Dave G.]

Yep, you are asked if you believe that Jesus died for your sins, buried , raised on the third day. Or otherwise that He is your or "the" savior ( say yes by the way to however it is they ask the question). Then it is spoken I baptize you in the name of the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit as you are dunked under the water.... That's the traditional order, at least as I know it to be. Full submersion, not little sprinkles of water.

 

[Aussie Pete]

Hello! Does the Bible teach a formula that is to be stated at baptism? Thanks!

It's not a formula, however it is worth noting that the Greek word "baptiso" means literally "To plunge something entirely into the water, so that the water closes over it..."

There seems to me to be no good reason why not by immersion. The symbolism is meaningless if another method is used. No one throws dirt on top of a dead body and walks away. And there is zero justification for sprinkling infants.

 

[Kilk1]

Mat 28:19 - “Go therefore and make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit,

Thank you for the reply! Does "in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit" mean the baptizer must say, "I baptize you in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit"? If so, would "in the name of Jesus Christ" (Acts 2:38, NKJV) mean the baptizer must say, "I baptize you in the name of Jesus Christ"? Thanks!

 

[Kilk1]

It's not a formula, however it is worth noting that the Greek word "baptiso" means literally "To plunge something entirely into the water, so that the water closes over it..."

There seems to me to be no good reason why not by immersion. The symbolism is meaningless if another method is used. No one throws dirt on top of a dead body and walks away. And there is zero justification for sprinkling infants.

While this thread is about whether there's a spoken formula for baptism, I agree that baptism is definitely by immersion, amen! The Greek as well as Romans 6:1-7 bear this out. Speaking of baptism, what do you think "for the remission of sins" (Acts 2:38, NKJV) means (although this gets us off topic a bit, lol)?

 

[HTacianas]

Thank you for the reply! Does "in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit" mean the baptizer must say, "I baptize you in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit"? If so, would "in the name of Jesus Christ" (Acts 2:38, NKJV) mean the baptizer must say, "I baptize you in the name of Jesus Christ"? Thanks!

The proper formula is Trinitarian. It has a long history. Some gnostic groups baptized in the name of Jesus, but it was effectively the "wrong" Jesus.

 

[Kilk1]

Yep, you are asked if you believe that Jesus died for your sins, buried , raised on the third day. Or otherwise that He is your or "the" savior ( say yes by the way to however it is they ask the question). Then it is spoken I baptize you in the name of the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit as you are dunked under the water.... That's the traditional order, at least as I know it to be. Full submersion, not little sprinkles of water.

Thanks for the reply! My question wasn't about tradition (though the tradition is definitely interesting) but rather the Bible itself. Does the Bible bind a certain baptismal formula? Thanks!

 

[Kilk1]

The proper formula is Trinitarian. It has a long history. Some gnostic groups baptized in the name of Jesus, but it was effectively the "wrong" Jesus.

What does the command to be baptized "in the name of Jesus Christ" (Acts 2:38) mean, though? Thanks!

 

[HTacianas]

What does the command to be baptized "in the name of Jesus Christ" (Acts 2:38) mean, though? Thanks!

It's just brevity. That it wasn't mentioned does not preclude it. People often quote parts of the that do not fully describe the writer's meaning, such as "believe on the Lord Jesus Christ and you will be saved". That was spoken to the jailer in Acts but that is not the full extent of it.

 

[Kilk1]

It's just brevity. That it wasn't mentioned does not preclude it. People often quote parts of the that do not fully describe the writer's meaning, such as "believe on the Lord Jesus Christ and you will be saved". That was spoken to the jailer in Acts but that is not the full extent of it.

If Matt. 28:19's use of "in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit" proves it's a formula that must be spoken, then it'd seem that Acts 2:38's use of "in the name of Jesus Christ" would prove it's a formula that must be spoken. (After all, "Jesus Christ" is different than "the Son" as far as wording is concerned, which suggests that Acts 2:38 isn't merely a shortened version of a Matt. 28:19.) But two baptismal formulas would mean the verses contradict each other.

What if "in the name of" simply means "by the authority of"? This would mean there is no baptismal formula, explaining the apparent discrepancy. The phrase "in the name of" has to mean "by the authority of" in Colossians 3:17 after all, right?

 

[Aussie Pete]

While this thread is about whether there's a spoken formula for baptism, I agree that baptism is definitely by immersion, amen! The Greek as well as Romans 6:1-7 bear this out. Speaking of baptism, what do you think "for the remission of sins" (Acts 2:38, NKJV) means (although this gets us off topic a bit, lol)?

Good question. What is does NOT mean is you are not saved unless/until you are baptised. We need to read all that the Bible has to say on baptism. "Remission" means to have a debt cancelled. Sin has already been paid (Colossians 2:14), the debt has been cancelled. Baptism is a public acknowledgement that you have been forgiven. It's not the only meaning, but it is part of it.

 

[Der Alte]

What does the command to be baptized "in the name of Jesus Christ" (Acts 2:38) mean, though? Thanks!

Acts of the Apostles 4:7 And when they had set them in the midst, they asked, By what power, or by what name, have ye done this?

 

[Kilk1]

Good question. What is does NOT mean is you are not saved unless/until you are baptised. We need to read all that the Bible has to say on baptism. "Remission" means to have a debt cancelled. Sin has already been paid (Colossians 2:14), the debt has been cancelled. Baptism is a public acknowledgement that you have been forgiven. It's not the only meaning, but it is part of it.

Would you agree that the Greek word eis (1519) in Acts 2:38 places baptism before the remission of sins?

 

[Kilk1]

Acts of the Apostles 4:7 And when they had set them in the midst, they asked, By what power, or by what name, have ye done this?

Is this the same meaning in Matt. 28:19? Thanks!

 

[GodLovesCats]

Thank you for the reply! Does "in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit" mean the baptizer must say, "I baptize you in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit"? If so, would "in the name of Jesus Christ" (Acts 2:38, NKJV) mean the baptizer must say, "I baptize you in the name of Jesus Christ"? Thanks!

Juet "the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit" is good enough for me. The original English language Bibles, which do not exist on paper anymore, had "of the" three times and KJV fans take that text literally. I don't know why it should matter, but that is just my opinion.

Baptism "in the Name of Jesus" is a different experience: when you are saved and receive the Holy Spirit. To see the difference, read a bout Bible characters speaking in tongues immediately afterward. A baptism in water is NEVER "in the Name of Jesus Christ."

 

[Der Alte]

Is this the same meaning in Matt. 28:19? Thanks!

As I understand it "in the name of" means "in/by the authority of". There is another example in the OT. What David said was not a formula but informing Goliath of his authority.

1 Samuel 7:45 Then said David to the Philistine, Thou comest to me with a sword, and with a spear, and with a shield: but I come to thee in the name of the LORD of hosts, the God of the armies of Israel, whom thou hast defied.​

 

[GodLovesCats]

There seems to me to be no good reason why not by immersion. The symbolism is meaningless if another method is used. No one throws dirt on top of a dead body and walks away. And there is zero justification for sprinkling infants.

There is no symbolism at all in sprinking water on a baby's hair. Immersion symbiolizes the death, burial, and resurrection of Jesus Christ. It is a public display of the believer's spiritual death and rebirth. Also, we all know John baptized Jesus Himself in a river, so Biblically any other method does not exist.

 

[Pilgrims hope]

The only name under heaven by which men must be saved is " Jesus the Christ" remember when Jesus was baptized ?

The Christ would be the son , filled with the spirit of God . The fullness of God in the flesh , and the only name given for salvation is jesus