Do you go directly to heaven after you die?

[redleghunter]

The Return of the Lord

13Brothers, we do not want you to be uninformed about those who sleep in death, so that you will not grieve like the rest, who are without hope. 14For since we believe that Jesus died and rose again, we also believe that God will bring with Jesus those who have fallen asleep in Him.

15By the word of the Lord, we declare to you that we who are alive and remain until the coming of the Lord will by no means precede those who have fallen asleep. 16For the Lord Himself will descend from heaven with a loud command, with the voice of an archangel, and with the trumpet of God, and the dead in Christ will be the first to rise. 17After that, we who are alive and remain will be caught up together with them in the clouds to meet the Lord in the air. And so we will always be with the Lord.

18Therefore encourage one another with these words.

Which version do you quote? All literal word for word translations for verse 13 have this:

English Standard Version
But we do not want you to be uninformed, brothers, about those who are asleep, that you may not grieve as others do who have no hope.

Berean Literal Bible
But we do not want you to be ignorant, brothers, concerning those having fallen asleep, so that you should not be grieved, just as also the rest, those having no hope.

New American Standard Bible
But we do not want you to be uninformed, brethren, about those who are asleep, so that you will not grieve as do the rest who have no hope.

King James Bible
But I would not have you to be ignorant, brethren, concerning them which are asleep, that ye sorrow not, even as others which have no hope.

Young's Literal Translation
And I do not wish you to be ignorant, brethren, concerning those who have fallen asleep, that ye may not sorrow, as also the rest who have not hope,

None of the literal versions have "who sleep in death" in verse 13. Why is this important? The added sleep in death makes it sound like soul annihilation and not using "sleep" "asleep" as the euphemism Paul has for the intended purpose. That's what it is here, a euphemism for death of a believer.

STRONGS NT 2837: κοιμάω
κοιμάω, κοίμω: passive, present κοιμάομαι. κοιμωμαι; perfect κεκοίμημαι (cf. Winer's Grammar, 274 (257)); 1 aorist ἐκοιμήθην; 1 future κοιμηθήσομαι; (akin to κεῖμαι; Curtius, § 45); to cause to sleep, put to sleep (Homer, et al.); metaphorically, to still, calm, quiet, (Homer, Aeschylus, Plato); passive to sleep, fall asleep: properly, Matthew 28:13; Luke 22:45; John 11:12; Acts 12:6; the Sept. for שָׁכַב. metaphorically, and euphemistically equivalent to to die (cf. English to fall asleep): John 11:11; Acts 7:60; Acts 13:36; 1 Corinthians 7:39; 1 Corinthians 11:30; 1 Corinthians 15:6, 51 (cf. Winers Grammar, 555 (517); Buttmann, 121 (106) note); 2 Peter 3:4; οἱ κοιμώμενοι, κεκοιμημένοι, κοιμηθέντες, equivalent to the dead: Matthew 27:52; 1 Corinthians 15:20; 1 Thessalonians 4:13-15; with ἐν Χριστῷ added (see ἐν, I. 6 b., p. 211b), 1 Corinthians 15:18; in the same sense Isaiah 14:8; Isaiah 43:17; 1 Kings 11:43; 2 Macc. 12:45; Homer, Iliad 11, 241; Sophocles Electr. 509. ​

As used by the apostle Paul in verse 13 it means death and not soul sleep. Paul would be contradicting himself as in 2 Corinthians 5 where he says:

6Therefore, being always of good courage, and knowing that while we are at home in the body we are absent from the Lord— 7for we walk by faith, not by sight— 8we are of good courage, I say, and prefer rather to be absent from the body and to be at home with the Lord. 9Therefore we also have as our ambition, whether at home or absent, to be pleasing to Him. 10For we must all appear before the judgment seat of Christ, so that each one may be recompensed for his deeds in the body, according to what he has done, whether good or bad. (NASB)​

Paul clearly states when one is at home in the body they are absent from the Lord. Then taking the corollary with saying we prefer to be absent from the body and to be at home with the Lord. Chrystal clear here.

And his statements above would also be axiomatic as "death" in most of Scriptures means the separation of the soul or immaterial inner man from the material outer man or body:

Death, Death-stroke (see also Die)

[ A-1,Noun,G2288, thanatos ]
death," is used in Scripture of:
(a) the separation of the soul (the spiritual part of man) from the body (the material part), the latter ceasing to function and turning to dust, e.g., John 11:13; Hebrews 2:15; Hebrews 5:7; Hebrews 7:23. In Hebrews 9:15, the AV, "by means of death" is inadequate; the RV, "a death having taken place" is in keeping with the subject. In Revelation 13:3, Revelation 13:12, the RV, "death-stroke" (AV, "deadly wound") is, lit., "the stroke of death:" (Death, Death-stroke (see also Die) - Vine's Expository Dictionary of New Testament Words​

Other supporting verses:

State of the Dead

I've seen these before from a Bullinger site. Perhaps you could provide the context of said verses? And also include the use of the word death or breath in context as well?

 

[eleos1954]

Absent from the body.... Present with the Lord!

6 Therefore we are always confident, knowing that, whilst we are at home in the body, we are absent from the Lord:
7 (For we walk by faith, not by sight
8 We are confident, I say, and willing rather to be absent from the body, and to be present with the Lord. - 2 Corinthians 5

I was under the impression the NDE may refer to people that actually died and were brought back to life. Is that an incorrect statement? Wikipedia defines it as:

A near-death experience (NDE) is a personal experience associated with death or impending death.

We know what true death is ... we see it every day ... and we don't see anyone coming back from it. So what is considered being dead? When the brain stops functioning? When the heart stops functioning? and for how long?

What is "near" death? People survive many extreme traumas ... should they have died in some cases? Yes, According to medical standards ... in some cases yes ... does that mean they were correct? Evidentially not ... because some live ... and some die.

ok ... so biblically ...

The dead are unconscious.
The Bible says that the dead “are conscious of nothing at all.” Ecclesiastes 9:5 At death we pass, not into another plane of existence or thinking, but into nonexistence. The teaching that we have an immortal soul that survives after our body dies does not come from the Bible. Ezekiel 18:4 Thus, any memories from a near-death experience cannot be glimpses of heaven, hell, or the afterlife.

What did Lazarus say about an afterlife?
The Bible’s account of Lazarus describes an actual death experience: He was resurrected by Jesus after being dead for four days. John 11:38-44 If Lazarus had been enjoying some form of afterlife, it would have been cruel of Jesus to bring him back to life on earth. However, the Bible records no comments from Lazarus about the afterlife. Surely Lazarus would have spoken about his afterlife experience if he had had one. Significantly, Jesus described Lazarus’ death as being like sleep, indicating that while Lazarus was dead, he was conscious of nothing at all.—John 11:11-14.

 

[redleghunter]

"I am going to heaven to be with God the Father". and they and we eventually will .. at His return.

"And he did promise the thief that he would be with him in paradise." to the thief He said I tell you today ... we know according to Acts Jesus himself did not ascend until later ...

Did Jesus lie? Was he joking?

Here is the problem with jigsaw proof texting. Let's examine the texts as you created a pretext and thus by extension a contradiction.

The first mistake is entering the text with the theory that we humans and also Jesus's human nature do not have an immaterial human soul or spirit. By entering the text with this materialistic 'sunk' idea, it does violence to several passages with their own context. Let's visit the text and it will be evident Jesus and the malefactor were indeed in Paradise that day of the crucifixion and their physical deaths.

Luke 23: NASB

33When they came to the place called The Skull, there they crucified Him and the criminals, one on the right and the other on the left. 34But Jesus was saying, “Father, forgive them; for they do not know what they are doing.” And they cast lots, dividing up His garments among themselves. 35And the people stood by, looking on. And even the rulers were sneering at Him, saying, “He saved others; let Him save Himself if this is the Christ of God, His Chosen One.” 36The soldiers also mocked Him, coming up to Him, offering Him sour wine, 37and saying, “If You are the King of the Jews, save Yourself!” 38Now there was also an inscription above Him, “THIS IS THE KING OF THE JEWS.”

39One of the criminals who were hanged there was hurling abuse at Him, saying, “Are You not the Christ? Save Yourself and us!” 40But the other answered, and rebuking him said, “Do you not even fear God, since you are under the same sentence of condemnation? 41“And we indeed are suffering justly, for we are receiving what we deserve for our deeds; but this man has done nothing wrong.” 42And he was saying, “Jesus, remember me when You come in Your kingdom!” 43And He said to him, “Truly I say to you, today you shall be with Me in Paradise.”

44It was now about the sixth hour, and darkness fell over the whole land until the ninth hour, 45because the sun was obscured; and the veil of the temple was torn in two. 46And Jesus, crying out with a loud voice, said, “Father, INTO YOUR HANDS I COMMIT MY SPIRIT.” Having said this, He breathed His last. ​

The "Truly I say to you" statements throughout the Gospels in the English is always followed by a comma. The original Greek has no such punctuation. However, even taking commas away the statement still means the same. That Jesus and the converted malefactor would be in Paradise that day.

Your objection is derived from this passage after the Resurrection:

John 20: NASB

11But Mary was standing outside the tomb weeping; and so, as she wept, she stooped and looked into the tomb; 12and she saw two angels in white sitting, one at the head and one at the feet, where the body of Jesus had been lying. 13And they said to her, “Woman, why are you weeping?” She said to them, “Because they have taken away my Lord, and I do not know where they have laid Him.” 14When she had said this, she turned around and saw Jesus standing there, and did not know that it was Jesus. 15Jesus said to her, “Woman, why are you weeping? Whom are you seeking?” Supposing Him to be the gardener, she said to Him, “Sir, if you have carried Him away, tell me where you have laid Him, and I will take Him away.” 16Jesus said to her, “Mary!” She turned and said to Him in Hebrew, “Rabboni!” (which means, Teacher). 17Jesus said to her, “Stop clinging to Me, for I have not yet ascended to the Father; but go to My brethren and say to them, ‘I ascend to My Father and your Father, and My God and your God.’” 18Mary Magdalene came, announcing to the disciples, “I have seen the Lord,” and that He had said these things to her.​

Jesus stating "for I have not yet ascended to the Father" you use to argue 'since Jesus had not ascended to the Father, then Jesus and the converted malefactor could not have yet been to Paradise."

Here's the answer. Jesus was correct in both statements to the malefactor and to Mary.

Why? Because it is evident the soul/spirit of Jesus Christ and the forgiven malefactor entered Paradise that day (the day of the crucifixion). When Mary clings to Jesus, He is risen from the dead with His imperishable immortal body. As Risen Christ had not yet been ascended to the Father bodily.

If one denies we humans are one person with both a material body and immaterial soul/spirit, then they will handle these Scriptures erroneously.

That is why a ton of verses from the OT and out of context verses from the NT will not help drive your argument given the very fact we humans have bodies and souls/spirits. Paul once again emphasizes this in 2 Corinthians 4. Note this is the same conversation which leads into 2 Corinthians 5 where he speaks of being present with the Lord once our bodies fail us:

2 Corinthians 4: NASB
16Therefore we do not lose heart, but though our outer man is decaying, yet our inner man is being renewed day by day. 17For momentary, light affliction is producing for us an eternal weight of glory far beyond all comparison, 18while we look not at the things which are seen, but at the things which are not seen; for the things which are seen are temporal, but the things which are not seen are eternal.​

 

[salt-n-light]

I've heard two teachings about this subject. I've heard that a Christians spirit goes directly after death to be with Jesus and awaits the resurrection of the body and I've heard of soul sleep where a Christian sleeps in the ground until the resurrection and the time from death till resurrection is instantaneous. Which is truth? Why or why not?

In my point of view I don’t even think we actually go to Heaven as a final destination.I believe we instead get placed on the new earth. But yes we will be ressurected.

In terms of where our spirit goes, I’m more towards it sleeping, but I don’t think it’s sleep as in in the ground, I don’t think it would be bound to the vessel we have, but rather God holding it until resurrection. Maybe the way we describe it as if someone is sleeping, still existing but not active( which opposes purgatory where it suggest that you are active)

 

[redleghunter]

If Lazarus had been enjoying some form of afterlife, it would have been cruel of Jesus to bring him back to life on earth.

Why? Lazarus' rising from the dead was to Glorify God. Anything Lazarus may have experienced is irrelevant. You stating it would have been cruel is creating a straw man to try to lend credence to your theory.

However, the Bible records no comments from Lazarus about the afterlife.

Again, so what?

 

[eleos1954]

Which version do you quote? All literal word for word translations for verse 13 have this:

English Standard Version
But we do not want you to be uninformed, brothers, about those who are asleep, that you may not grieve as others do who have no hope.

Berean Literal Bible
But we do not want you to be ignorant, brothers, concerning those having fallen asleep, so that you should not be grieved, just as also the rest, those having no hope.

New American Standard Bible
But we do not want you to be uninformed, brethren, about those who are asleep, so that you will not grieve as do the rest who have no hope.

King James Bible
But I would not have you to be ignorant, brethren, concerning them which are asleep, that ye sorrow not, even as others which have no hope.

Young's Literal Translation
And I do not wish you to be ignorant, brethren, concerning those who have fallen asleep, that ye may not sorrow, as also the rest who have not hope,

None of the literal versions have "who sleep in death" in verse 13. Why is this important? The added sleep in death makes it sound like soul annihilation and not using "sleep" "asleep" as the euphemism Paul has for the intended purpose. That's what it is here, a euphemism for death of a believer.

STRONGS NT 2837: κοιμάω
κοιμάω, κοίμω: passive, present κοιμάομαι. κοιμωμαι; perfect κεκοίμημαι (cf. Winer's Grammar, 274 (257)); 1 aorist ἐκοιμήθην; 1 future κοιμηθήσομαι; (akin to κεῖμαι; Curtius, § 45); to cause to sleep, put to sleep (Homer, et al.); metaphorically, to still, calm, quiet, (Homer, Aeschylus, Plato); passive to sleep, fall asleep: properly, Matthew 28:13; Luke 22:45; John 11:12; Acts 12:6; the Sept. for שָׁכַב. metaphorically, and euphemistically equivalent to to die (cf. English to fall asleep): John 11:11; Acts 7:60; Acts 13:36; 1 Corinthians 7:39; 1 Corinthians 11:30; 1 Corinthians 15:6, 51 (cf. Winers Grammar, 555 (517); Buttmann, 121 (106) note); 2 Peter 3:4; οἱ κοιμώμενοι, κεκοιμημένοι, κοιμηθέντες, equivalent to the dead: Matthew 27:52; 1 Corinthians 15:20; 1 Thessalonians 4:13-15; with ἐν Χριστῷ added (see ἐν, I. 6 b., p. 211b), 1 Corinthians 15:18; in the same sense Isaiah 14:8; Isaiah 43:17; 1 Kings 11:43; 2 Macc. 12:45; Homer, Iliad 11, 241; Sophocles Electr. 509. ​

As used by the apostle Paul in verse 13 it means death and not soul sleep. Paul would be contradicting himself as in 2 Corinthians 5 where he says:

6Therefore, being always of good courage, and knowing that while we are at home in the body we are absent from the Lord— 7for we walk by faith, not by sight— 8we are of good courage, I say, and prefer rather to be absent from the body and to be at home with the Lord. 9Therefore we also have as our ambition, whether at home or absent, to be pleasing to Him. 10For we must all appear before the judgment seat of Christ, so that each one may be recompensed for his deeds in the body, according to what he has done, whether good or bad. (NASB)​

Paul clearly states when one is at home in the body they are absent from the Lord. Then taking the corollary with saying we prefer to be absent from the body and to be at home with the Lord. Chrystal clear here.

And his statements above would also be axiomatic as "death" in most of Scriptures means the separation of the soul or immaterial inner man from the material outer man or body:

Death, Death-stroke (see also Die)

[ A-1,Noun,G2288, thanatos ]
death," is used in Scripture of:
(a) the separation of the soul (the spiritual part of man) from the body (the material part), the latter ceasing to function and turning to dust, e.g., John 11:13; Hebrews 2:15; Hebrews 5:7; Hebrews 7:23. In Hebrews 9:15, the AV, "by means of death" is inadequate; the RV, "a death having taken place" is in keeping with the subject. In Revelation 13:3, Revelation 13:12, the RV, "death-stroke" (AV, "deadly wound") is, lit., "the stroke of death:" (Death, Death-stroke (see also Die) - Vine's Expository Dictionary of New Testament Words​

I've seen these before from a Bullinger site. Perhaps you could provide the context of said verses? And also include the use of the word death or breath in context as well?

Does Jesus know the difference between death and sleep?

 

[devin553344]

We know what true death is ... we see it every day ... and we don't see anyone coming back from it. So what is considered being dead? When the brain stops functioning? When the heart stops functioning? and for how long?

What is "near" death? People survive many extreme traumas ... should they have died in some cases? Yes, According to medical standards ... in some cases yes ... does that mean they were correct? Evidentially not ... because some live ... and some die.

ok ... so biblically ...

The dead are unconscious.
The Bible says that the dead “are conscious of nothing at all.” Ecclesiastes 9:5 At death we pass, not into another plane of existence or thinking, but into nonexistence. The teaching that we have an immortal soul that survives after our body dies does not come from the Bible. Ezekiel 18:4 Thus, any memories from a near-death experience cannot be glimpses of heaven, hell, or the afterlife.

What did Lazarus say about an afterlife?
The Bible’s account of Lazarus describes an actual death experience: He was resurrected by Jesus after being dead for four days. John 11:38-44 If Lazarus had been enjoying some form of afterlife, it would have been cruel of Jesus to bring him back to life on earth. However, the Bible records no comments from Lazarus about the afterlife. Surely Lazarus would have spoken about his afterlife experience if he had had one. Significantly, Jesus described Lazarus’ death as being like sleep, indicating that while Lazarus was dead, he was conscious of nothing at all.—John 11:11-14.

I looked at the scriptures you quoted and had an entirely different experience

 

[redleghunter]

Does Jesus know the difference between death and sleep?

Would you like to address what I posted?

 

[eleos1954]

The story of Lazarus in Luke 16:19-31 seems to say that we go directly to heaven when we die.

If so ... what is the purpose of the 1st resurrection of the dead?

There was a mini example of the resurrection to come ... what was this about then?

Matthew 27:52-53

52 and the graves were opened; and many bodies of the saints who had fallen asleep were raised; 53 and coming out of the graves after His resurrection, they went into the holy city and appeared to many.

 

[redleghunter]

If so ... what is the purpose of the 1st resurrection of the dead?

There was a mini example of the resurrection to come ... what was this about then?

Matthew 27:52-53

52 and the graves were opened; and many bodies of the saints who had fallen asleep were raised; 53 and coming out of the graves after His resurrection, they went into the holy city and appeared to many.

That has nothing to do with what was quoted from the story of Lazarus in Luke 16:19-31

 

[exitstageright]

Well, 'today' in scripture doesn't always mean 24 hours of course, and it could fit the above...or not. I say 'if' when I speculate on this kind of thing, because it's really only educated guessing. I recall that Christ said 'the first will be last, and the last will be first' and while that could mean only about serving others, it seems to me it also suggests that new converts are initially in a state of (close to) perfection (that is, without any significant after-conversion sins yet), and if they die in that state, they might possibly (speculation) be in a special situation. We know Moses and Elijah were present with Christ at the transfiguration, yet we also know 'the dead in Christ will rise' when He returns (does this mean most are indeed asleep, or that instead they would be reunited to their bodily forms?). I remain very content to simply trust God, and never be concerned that I have to know for sure about such things.

Unfortunately,the bible is not a science book that says,"At death this is what happens. Number 1,this happens. Number 2,this happens .Number 3,this happens" ,and so on. We just are going to have to trust God. The good news is that we can trust God to be telling us the truth. As the bible says,"God cannot lie."

 

[eleos1954]

Would you like to address what I posted?

I'm trying to make it more simple ... I look at many translations of the bible and yes the greek and hebrew using the strongs as well

what was this about?

Matthew 27:52-53
52 and the graves were opened; and many bodies of the saints who had fallen asleep were raised; 53 and coming out of the graves after His resurrection, they went into the holy city and appeared to many.

If all the saved go to heaven and are with the Lord, what is the purpose of the 1st resurrection? Who are in it?

 

[BobRyan]

I've heard two teachings about this subject. I've heard that a Christians spirit goes directly after death to be with Jesus and awaits the resurrection of the body and I've heard of soul sleep where a Christian sleeps in the ground until the resurrection and the time from death till resurrection is instantaneous. Which is truth? Why or why not?

Both of those views say that the spirit goes directly to God upon death. The 1Thess 4 "sleep" version is simply pointing out that they are in a dormant state while in that separated-from-the-body condition.

1Thess 4
13 But I do not want you to be ignorant, brethren, concerning those who have fallen asleep, lest you sorrow as others who have no hope. 14 For if we believe that Jesus died and rose again, even so God will bring with Him those who sleep in Jesus.
15 For this we say to you by the word of the Lord, that we who are alive and remain until the coming of the Lord will by no means precede those who are asleep. 16 For the Lord Himself will descend from heaven with a shout, with the voice of an archangel, and with the trumpet of God. And the dead in Christ will rise first. 17 Then we who are alive and remain shall be caught up together with them in the clouds to meet the Lord in the air. And thus (in this way) we shall always be with the Lord. 18 Therefore comfort one another with these words.

Paul said our presence would be with the Lord:

1Thess4
And thus (in this way) we shall always be with the Lord. 18 Therefore comfort one another with these words.

What exactly was the "way" which Paul defined for us in 1Thess 4 that we would "ever be WITH the Lord" -- according to his statement in 1Thess 4?

That explains why Peter says to "fix your hope completely" on the 2nd coming

 

[BobRyan]

2 Corinthians 5:6-9 and Philippians 1:23-25 is clear that the soul is actively conscious after death;

then you should quote those texts and show us.

 

[eleos1954]

Both of those views say that the spirit goes directly to God upon death. The 1Thess 4 "sleep" version is simply pointing out that they are in a dormant state while in that separated-from-the-body condition.

1Thess 4
13 But I do not want you to be ignorant, brethren, concerning those who have fallen asleep, lest you sorrow as others who have no hope. 14 For if we believe that Jesus died and rose again, even so God will bring with Him those who sleep in Jesus.
15 For this we say to you by the word of the Lord, that we who are alive and remain until the coming of the Lord will by no means precede those who are asleep. 16 For the Lord Himself will descend from heaven with a shout, with the voice of an archangel, and with the trumpet of God. And the dead in Christ will rise first. 17 Then we who are alive and remain shall be caught up together with them in the clouds to meet the Lord in the air. And thus we shall always be with the Lord. 18 Therefore comfort one another with these words.

"sleep" version is simply pointing out that they are in a dormant state while in that separated-from-the-body condition"

Thank you ... simple and best explanation.

 

[eleos1954]

You don’t understand the difference between being spirit and having a body?

I think BobRyan simply and best explained it.

"sleep" version is simply pointing out that they are in a dormant state while in that separated-from-the-body condition"

 

[BobRyan]

There is a difference between being in heaven in spirit and receiving a resurrected body.

True.

But as Paul points out in 1 Thess 4 -- that spirit is in a dormant state while in that "separated from the body" condition. John 11 makes the same point about Christ's friend Lazarus. "Our friend Lazarus sleeps - I go that I may wake him"

In this life - in the first death they "may KILL the body but are unable to kill the soul" Matt 10:28. Lazarus' body had been killed... it was not sleeping. It is Lazarus himself that was "asleep" in death.

 

[His student]

Acts 1:11 is very clear...
11 who also said, “Men of Galilee, why do you stand gazing up into heaven? This same Jesus, who was taken up from you into heaven, will so come in like manner as you saw Him go into heaven.” How did Jesus Enter Heaven? Hidden from their eyes by a cloud (Acts 1:9)

The passage describing Stephen's vision says nothing about Christ returning to earth. In fact it says clearly that Jesus was standing at the right hand of God- still in Heaven.

The Heavens opened.

Not a cloud in sight.

Which would be 100% UNLIKE what happened in Acts 1:11, for only the Apostles saw Him go.

Of course it was. But you don't really want to enter now into a debate about the Rapture of the church do you?

Acts 9:3-6 would be another time Acts 1:11 was literally fulfilled.

No it would not. Not a cloud in the sky and no sign of Jesus returning to the road leading into Damascus - either to Paul or any other disciple.

I'm not sure what doctrine you're trying to avoid with this ridiculous train of teaching. But you are way off base with it and it's obvious to all but the one person who shot from the hip with a like for your original post.

 

[dms1972]

Do you go to directly to heaven after you die?

No I think you have to pass GO first. [only joking]

I've heard two teachings about this subject. I've heard that a Christians spirit goes directly after death to be with Jesus and awaits the resurrection of the body and I've heard of soul sleep where a Christian sleeps in the ground until the resurrection and the time from death till resurrection is instantaneous. Which is truth? Why or why not?

Good question

Paul speaks a few times of those who have died as being asleep, so that sounds like some sort of soul-sleep.

On the other hand I read a long time ago a Christian bio (whose I cannot remember now). And the lady in question had been dead a short time but her young daughter started praying with great faith and she came back to life. She seemed to be able to describe something of the blessed state she had entered for a short time before being brought back.

So I don't know.

 

[Neostarwcc]

Do you go to directly to heaven after you die?

No I think you have to pass GO first. [only joking]



Good question

Paul speaks a few times of those who have died as being asleep, so that sounds like some sort of soul-sleep.

On the other hand I read a long time ago a Christian bio (whose I cannot remember now). And the lady in question had been dead a short time but her young daughter started praying with great faith and she came back to life. She seemed to be able to describe something of the blessed state she had entered for a short time before being brought back.

So I don't know.

Yes I've heard of people who have died and have come back and saying how they were in such a wonderful place. Apparently from these stories people say that every Christian even has a mansion dedicated to them. Idk if its true or not but Jesus does say that God the father has many mansions and that Jesus is going to heaven to prepare a place for each of us. So... Idk either. Its a mystery. I mean it would be cool to have a mansion dedicated to me. It would be REALLY cool. But I guess I will find out when I die.