- Oct 10, 2011
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I wonder how much control God in the OT had over His feelings...?Neo,
After glancing through the responses, I don't really see that anyone was willing to take you up on your offer (although I did this very quickly and may have missed something).
I am willing to do so. Your proposition is very intriguing. It puts to mind Albert Einsteins 'thought experiments,' of which he was famous for. This is where he laid aside ANY AND ALL preconceived notions in order to gain a greater or deeper understanding of the subject. Most famous of which I suppose, was his willingness to lay aside the idea or 'obvious' notion that time or ' the passing of time' occurred at a consistent rate.
In defining omnipotence - my idea is that the Creator (God of the Bible), has complete and utter authority over all things. And also, that before there was anything (and I do mean ANYTHING), there was Him (God). So that He created all things. I feel that unless we agree on that, our experiment might be set up to fail from the start. But in reading your thoughts/definition, it looks to me as if we agree.
So, I will proceed with your very first question. What would He be 'like'? Would He have feelings?..., And my answer to this would be NO. Not in the sense that we do, because he would have been the Creator or Architect of 'feelings.' Having constructed them or brought them into being. And then, put them into us, another of His created things. And as such, He Lords over 'feelings.' He controls them. And too, He might use them however He desires to, or make them to be whatever He desires them to be.
What do you think?
And if He was just "acting" a certain way, if that would imply some kind of deception or not, ect...?
But, a good thought provoking post on your part, thanks,
God Bless!
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