childeye 2
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The Church believes that if you commit a mortal sin, you forfeit heaven and opt for hell by your own free will and actions.
Three conditions are necessary for mortal sin to exist:
- Grave Matter: The act itself is intrinsically evil and immoral. For example, murder, rape, incest, perjury, adultery, and so on are grave matter.
- Full Knowledge: The person must know that what they’re doing or planning to do is evil and immoral. For example, someone steals a postage stamp, thinking that it’s only worth 50 cents. She knows that it’s sinful, but if she’s unaware that the stamp is rare and actually worth a $1,000, she’s not guilty of mortal sin but of venial sin.
- Deliberate Consent: The person must freely choose to commit the act or plan to do it. Someone forced against her will doesn’t commit a mortal sin. For example, a woman told she’s giving a minor shock to another person who in fact is administering tortuous electrical jolts is not guilty of a mortal sin (although she may feel guilty if she finds out the truth).
Mortal and Venial Sins in the Catholic Church - dummies
Being raised and schooled in Roman Catholic doctrine, I'm very familiar with this type of teaching about free will. The teaching above is an attempt to establish what constitutes culpability without first qualifying the term "free" in front of "will". As such, it either confounds or even misinforms concerning the alternative meaning of a free will that is contrasted opposite to an enslaved will, which is the teaching that the slavery of sin is based upon being deceived, such as what was taught by Jesus and his apostles. I would therefore point out, that I find myself dealing with the semantics wherein it's completely reasonable to say that in order to have a free will you have to stop believing in free will.
What does freely choose actually mean if it implies that no higher power ever rules over us in the moral/immoral purview, particularly when one must rule over us in any given situation in the moral/immoral sense of Light/dark? Is this not a contradiction? For example, I think it's clear that the Pope at the time of the inquisition was being manipulated under powers of darkness when he instructed his subordinates to burn people alive. Would this qualify as a freely made choice to the Pope or did dissenters force the decision? And did those who burned people alive in subservience to the Pope show deliberate consent with full knowledge that it's right to burn people alive if they don't agree with the Pope, or was it that such obedience is the product of a circular reasoning manifesting through the fear of not wanting to be burned alive for not burning others alive?
What does freely choose actually mean if it implies that no higher power ever rules over us in the moral/immoral purview, particularly when one must rule over us in any given situation in the moral/immoral sense of Light/dark? Is this not a contradiction? For example, I think it's clear that the Pope at the time of the inquisition was being manipulated under powers of darkness when he instructed his subordinates to burn people alive. Would this qualify as a freely made choice to the Pope or did dissenters force the decision? And did those who burned people alive in subservience to the Pope show deliberate consent with full knowledge that it's right to burn people alive if they don't agree with the Pope, or was it that such obedience is the product of a circular reasoning manifesting through the fear of not wanting to be burned alive for not burning others alive?
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