I have shown you the scriptures that teach scripture us the resurrection happens at His coming and then the rapture happens at His coming then the antichrist is destroyed by the actual brightness of His coming.
No you have not.
You have taken several pieces of scripture, overlooked other sections, and piecemealed a "doctrine" together.
Fact: the three gospel passages I quoted, do not say that. (Jesus destroys the antichrist at His return)
1 Cor. 15:22-23, 51-54 don't say it. (Jesus destroys the antichrist at His return)
1 Thess. 4:13-18 do not say it. (Jesus destroys the antichrist at His return)
Now, do these passages teach that He returns? Yes.
Do they teach a gathering of His "elect"? Yes.
Do they teach a "resurrection"? Yes, and no. (Taking the Gospel passages into consideration)
But, do Mt. 24:30-31, Mk. 13:36-37, Lk. 21:27-28; 1 Cor. 15:22-23, 51-54, 1 Thess. 4:13-18 say Jesus will destroy the antichrist at His coming? No they do not.
Like I said, you have taken a few passages, skipped some, and put together a doctrine that suits your personal theology.
And that is all you have done.
With the exception of Mt. 24:29, none of the verses you have based your assumptions on, comes close to disproving the "theory" of a "pre-trib rapture"!
And even Mt. 24:29 can be disputed.
Does 2 Thess. 2:8 say Jesus will destroy the antichrist? Technically no.
What it does say, however, in the KJV, it is rendered "wicked".
"And then shall that Wicked be revealed," -2 Thess. 2:8 (KJV)
However, "ἄνομος" in the Greek, is a fairly ambiguous term.
"Definition: lawless, without law.
"ἄνομος, ἄνομον (νόμος);
1. destitute of (the Mosaic) law: used of Gentiles,
1 Corinthians 9:21, (without any suggestion of 'iniquity'; just as in Additions to Esther 4:42 [
Esther 4:374:17u], where ἄνομοι ἀπερίτμητοι and ἀλλότριοι are used together).
2. departing from the law, a violator of the law, lawless, wicked; (Vulg.iniquus; (alsoinjustus)):
Mark 15:28 (R L Tr brackets);
Luke 22:37;
Acts 2:23 (so in Greek writings); opposed to ὁ δίκαιος,
1 Timothy 1:9; ὁ ἄνομος (κατ' ἐξοχήν), he in whom all iniquity has as it were fixed its abode,
2 Thessalonians 2:8; ἀνόμοις ἔργοις, unlawful deeds,
2 Peter 2:8; free from law, not subject to law (Vulg.sinelege): μή ὤν ἄνομος θεοῦ (Buttmann, 169 (147)) (Rec. θεῷ),
1 Corinthians 9:21. (Very often in the Sept.) (Synonym: see ἀνομία, at the end.)"
Source
So it could mean anybody "outside the Moasic Law, i.e.: Gentiles, or, anybody who violates the Law, anybody who is lawless, a "transgressor*", wicked, etc.
(Cf. also: *The New Analytical Greek Lexicon, Wesley J. Perschbacher, Hendrickson Publishing Company, Peabody, Mass, 01962, Copyright 1990, ἄνομος", p. 31)
Most take that to mean the "antichrist", so I will not debate that. Only point out that it is a fairly ambiguous term.
So I will say, as far as
you are concerned, yes, 2 Thess. 2:8 might say that.
But the other five passages, no sir, they do not.
God Bless
Till all are one.
