I'm glad you asked.Hi there; good to see you on the forums. Just out of interest, how would you understand 1 Corinthians 7.11?
"But and if she depart, let her remain unmarried or be reconciled to her husband: and let not the husband put away his wife."
If you look carefully at I Corinthians 7, you will see Paul first introduces the overall subject of how necessary marriage is, and how it is supposed to work, in verses 1-6.
But then he says each person has his own gift from God, as pertains to marriage. And then, he addresses 4 separate groups.
1. the unmarried and widows. (verses 8 and 9.)
2. the married (verses 10 and 11.)
3. "the rest" (verses 12-24.)
4. virgins (verses 25 and 26.)
And verses 27 to the end are the conclusion, where he speaks of life-focus, he reiterates his main points, and he wraps up loose ends.
Now, look carefully.
What Paul spoke to one group, did not apply to the other groups!
That is why he addressed each group separately.
Who are "the rest" Paul addressed beginning in verse 12?
Obviously, they were married, but not to believers.
Therefore, what was spoken to "the married" in verses 10 and 11 do not apply to "the rest" who were married to unbelievers!
That answers your question, I believe.
But let us continue our study of this chapter...
What was spoken in the middle of this chapter, about circumcision, servanthood, and "if you may be free, use it rather" ...was actually spoken in the context of a very orderly instruction manual about marriage... and it was spoken directly to those married to unbelievers. Circumcision and servanthood were only illustrations of being married to an unbeliever.
Paul says it's okay to let the unbeliever depart, if he or she isn't happy while married to you!
(In fact, the OT Law [and in the NT, "sin is the transgression of the Law"] allows for a woman to divorce a neglectful, abusive husband.)
Therefore, "if thou mayest be made free" was probably a direct reference to what was allowable under the OT Law, in obtaining a divorce. (And God did not allow separation without divorce papers. Deut 24:1-2.)
To "virgins" Paul had "no command from the Lord." (verse 25)
Yet, he had a command from the Lord to "the unmarried and widows."
Therefore, "virgins" are not included in the first group, the "unmarried".
Who are these "unmarried" who were neither virgins, nor widows??
Notice, that these are logically divided groups. It would be illogical to group virgins with those who were once married, but who now found themselves single. The logical thing would be to group all those who were once married, but who now found themselves single, in the same group. And that would include the divorced.
Did the 1st-century church have divorced people among them? You bet they did! Historians tell us that divorce was very easy to obtain, and it was common, both among the Jews, and among the Greeks and Romans. Roman women were said to divorce yearly, trading off husbands as if they were costumes of fashion.
Therefore, the early church had a LOT of divorced-and-remarried people in them! Yet, in all of the NT, there is not one instruction on how to treat this as a special situation, and needing careful instruction as to how to get back to the original partners... of course not. Because that would have been an abomination to God, as He instructed in Deuteronomy 24:4.
Now, go read 1 Corinthians 7:8-9.
This was spoken to divorced people.
I know. That idea would disturb quite a few religious devils in traditional churches.
But it's the Scripture.
And in Paul's conclusion, he reiterates what he said in verse 9.
Here it is without punctuation or verse divisions (they did not exist in the original.)
Art thou bound unto a wife seek not to be loosed art thou loosed from a wife seek not a wife but and if thou marry thou hast not sinned
The Greek word translated loosed both times in the above passage obviously means divorced, not death. The literal meaning is "broken."
There is another Greek word translated loosed", in Romans 7:2, but in that case, it's talking about death. That Greek word means "dissolved." So if Paul intended to tell only widowed people they were free to remarry, he would have not used the word he chose.
Therefore, 1 Corinthians 7:27-28 says very clearly that if a divorced person remarries, he has not sinned.
Edited on 2-24-17, to add:
I forgot to mention something else the Lord opened my eyes to, in this passage.
Remember the rule of Scripture interpretation that says "let the context define the terms"?
Do you see how the term "unmarried" is defined, in 1 Corinthians 7:11 ?
Therefore, the same definition applies to 1 Corinthians 7:8 !
To clarify: A woman separated from her husband, is called "unmarried."
Therefore, the term "unmarried," as used in the immediate context, must include separated and divorced people. Which means when Paul spoke to "the unmarried and widows" he was including divorced people. And the command to these, is that it's better to remarry, than to burn.
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