Did Jesus speak in tongues?

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Jim B

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Did Jesus speak in tongues?

I have concluded that Jesus did not speak in tongues.

Tongues is the one uniquely distinctive New Testament gift (Isa 28.11; 1 Cor 14.21) not available (I don't think) to those under the Old Covenant (correct?). Since Jesus was “born under the law” and died prior to the coming of the Spirit at Pentecost, He, therefore, did not speak in tongues.

This is a question that has come my way, and I was interested in your opinion. (Try to keep the answer to 25 pages or less.

What do you say?

If I am right, what are the implications? Does this mean that Christians have a gift that was unavailable to the Lord Himself and, if so, why?

Hmmmm? :scratch:

Jim
 

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I have concluded that Jesus did not speak in tongues.

Tongues is the one uniquely distinctive New Testament gift (Isa 28.11; 1 Cor 14.21) not available (I don't think) to those under the Old Covenant (correct?). Since Jesus was “born under the law” and died prior to the coming of the Spirit at Pentecost, He, therefore, did not speak in tongues.

This is a question that has come my way, and I was interested in your opinion. (Try to keep the answer to 25 pages or less.

What do you say?

If I am right, what are the implications? Does this mean that Christians have a gift that was unavailable to the Lord Himself and, if so, why?

Hmmmm? :scratch:


YES, all of them, lol. No, just kidding...I think? I do not think that Jesus spoke in tongues, because this was a gift from the Holy Spirit to MAN on the Day Pentecost. Why would He give Himself this gift, when the word says that tongues are a sign for them that believe not... 1st Cor 14:22? I'm sure He believes in Himself, lol. I do not recall anywhere in scripture, where it said that He spoke in tongues. I agree with you that He had died prior to the Day of Pentecost.
Also, Jesus told the deciples right before He ascended into heaven, ye shall receive power after that the Holy Ghost is come unto you. Okay, that being the scenerio, the Holy Ghost wasn't here during His earthly ministry because Jesus was here instead, no need for the third person of the Trinity to be here, since the second person of the Trinity was already here..so, no He didn't.
 
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Father Rick

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Jim B said:
Tongues is the one uniquely distinctive New Testament gift (Isa 28.11; 1 Cor 14.21) not available (I don't think) to those under the Old Covenant (correct?). Since Jesus was “born under the law” and died prior to the coming of the Spirit at Pentecost, He, therefore, did not speak in tongues.

...

If I am right, what are the implications? Does this mean that Christians have a gift that was unavailable to the Lord Himself and, if so, why?

Hmmmm? :scratch:

Jim
Implications? Wow... big question!

First, I agree with your premise completely that Jesus lived under the Law. As the Messiah it was imperative (and Scripture confirms) that he perfectly fulfill the Law-- meaning He would have to live under its curse. It was by his death that the curse of the Law was broken.

Now let's think about just that for a second. We know that Jesus was both fully and completely God and fully and completely man. While here on earth, he 'emptied' himself so that while he was 100% God he was not acting as God. He was acting as a man (still under the curse of the Law). This is why He did nothing until he was anointed by the Holy Spirit. In fact scripture is clear "Jesus of Nazareth, anointed by the Holy Spirit, went about doing good and healing all that were oppressed by the devil." If He was doing everything He did as God, then we as mere men could not follow His example. Rather, since He was functioning as a man, doing everything He did as a man, we can now follow Him and live after His example.

This means that all the miracles and healings Jesus did were not done in "God mode". They were done as a man anointed by the Holy Spirit-- still under the curse of the Law nonetheless.

No wonder He said we would do greater things than He had done. Can you imagine what is available to us as 'men anointed by the Holy Spirit' now that the curse of the Law has been broken? Once Pentecost came and the Holy Spirit was poured out on the Church, we now have access to the fullness of the power of the Godhead operating in and through us without all the limitations of the curse of the Law. :clap: Can you imagine what it would do to the Church if we were really living in the light of that?

I know the original question was just about 'tongues', but the implications are so much greater than just that!!
 
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Jim B

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Freak4JC said:
Jesus knows every language. When we pray in the spirit we are praying the words that the Lord has put in our mouth.
This is true, but NOT during His earthly ministry, when he had emptied Himself (kenosis) and became in the likeness of human flesh. He was made lower than angels, made of a woman, made under the Law. He GREW in knowledge and wisdom, He ate, drank, got weary, slept, died.

During His earthly ministry, there were things that Jesus did not know. He did not know the hour of His return, for example, and I do not believe that during that time He understood ALL languages.

So, back to the OP.

Did Jesus speak in tongues (while He was on earth)?

\o/
 
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Big Mouth Nana

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Father Rick said:
Implications? Wow... big question!

First, I agree with your premise completely that Jesus lived under the Law. As the Messiah it was imperative (and Scripture confirms) that he perfectly fulfill the Law-- meaning He would have to live under its curse. It was by his death that the curse of the Law was broken.

Now let's think about just that for a second. We know that Jesus was both fully and completely God and fully and completely man. While here on earth, he 'emptied' himself so that while he was 100% God he was not acting as God. He was acting as a man (still under the curse of the Law). This is why He did nothing until he was anointed by the Holy Spirit. In fact scripture is clear "Jesus of Nazareth, anointed by the Holy Spirit, went about doing good and healing all that were oppressed by the devil." If He was doing everything He did as God, then we as mere men could not follow His example. Rather, since He was functioning as a man, doing everything He did as a man, we can now follow Him and live after His example.

This means that all the miracles and healings Jesus did were not done in "God mode". They were done as a man anointed by the Holy Spirit-- still under the curse of the Law nonetheless.

No wonder He said we would do greater things than He had done. Can you imagine what is available to us as 'men anointed by the Holy Spirit' now that the curse of the Law has been broken? Once Pentecost came and the Holy Spirit was poured out on the Church, we now have access to the fullness of the power of the Godhead operating in and through us without all the limitations of the curse of the Law. :clap: Can you imagine what it would do to the Church if we were really living in the light of that?

I know the original question was just about 'tongues', but the implications are so much greater than just that!!
WOW, do I feel stupid!!! Of course He was annointed with the Holy Spirit. Geesh, where is my mind today???!!!! This was a good post Father Rick. Your statement about operating as a man and not the God head, really hit home for me!! Yes, if we could just get this into our Spirits, on the power we really have through the Holy Spirit, we would be doing those "even greater works". Love it!!! Back to tongues now. Sorry Jim.
 
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Yes, Jesus did speak in tongues.

Mar 15:34 And at the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice, saying, Eloi, Eloi, lama sabachthani? which is, being interpreted, My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?

Do not be fooled however, he learned to speak in tongues by way of learning. He also didn't edify himself by speaking in tongues, he either spoke in tongues to people in his ministry or spoke in tongues to God, such as the Mark 15:34 example.
 
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markIII

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Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani. The Hebrew form, as Elio, Elio, Lama sabachthani is the Syro-Chaldiac (the common language in use by the Jews in the time of Christ) of the first words of Psalm 22; they mean of course "My G-d, My G-d, why hast thou foresaken me?"

When Jesus spoke these words He was not speaking in tongues!

:bow:
 
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rooster

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Jim B said:
Did Jesus speak in tongues?

I have concluded that Jesus did not speak in tongues.

Tongues is the one uniquely distinctive New Testament gift (Isa 28.11; 1 Cor 14.21) not available (I don't think) to those under the Old Covenant (correct?). Since Jesus was “born under the law” and died prior to the coming of the Spirit at Pentecost, He, therefore, did not speak in tongues.

This is a question that has come my way, and I was interested in your opinion. (Try to keep the answer to 25 pages or less.

What do you say?

If I am right, what are the implications? Does this mean that Christians have a gift that was unavailable to the Lord Himself and, if so, why?

Hmmmm? :scratch:

Jim

I saw this question a little differently. I pray in tongues because i do not know what to pray, Christ need not because he knew what to pray.
I would say he did not speak in tongues because he had no need to.

He was intimately aware of the will of the Father and totally obedient, thus he knew what was needed to be prayed for.
He having denied sin to himself he is thus also intimately close to the father and can hear his voice clearly.

I would not see it as tongues being a "new" testament gift that was not available to him because the outpouring at pentecost had not happened. What of the other great acts that Christ was performing which we would now call "New covenant" gifts of the Spirit?
As Christ is now our advocate before the father, the Spirit is our advocate of the realness of his Lordship and salvation. Remember the Spirit came to testify within us of Christ; our belief of salvation comes from the testimony of the Word and the Spirit within us and not from conjuctual linkages we make from the historical man of Jesus and the narratives of the gospel.
 
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Svt4Him said:
The Holy Spirit came in the OT, He just never stayed. As for Jesus, I have no idea if He did or not.
This would have to be true, because David had the Holy Spirit.. Psalms 51:11 ~ Cast me not away from thy presence; and take not thy Holy Spirit from me. Since David had the HS, I wonder if he spoke in tongues..Hmmmm?
 
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markIII said:
Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani. The Hebrew form, as Elio, Elio, Lama sabachthani is the Syro-Chaldiac (the common language in use by the Jews in the time of Christ) of the first words of Psalm 22; they mean of course "My G-d, My G-d, why hast thou foresaken me?"

When Jesus spoke these words He was not speaking in tongues!

:bow:
How is it you say Jesus did not speak in various tongues, I thought he knew both Greek, Aramaic, and Hebrew. Are you saying that he spoke in no tongues at all? Was he mute?
 
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Big Mouth Nana

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accurate said:
How is it you say Jesus did not speak in various tongues, I thought he knew both Greek, Aramaic, and Hebrew. Are you saying that he spoke in no tongues at all? Was he mute?
I could be wrong here, I have been before, lol. I think what is being referred to, is tongues in the "heavenly" language, not "earthly" languages.
 
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Jim B

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Svt4Him said:
And what did J-sus do for His 20th birthday. Do you think He had a cake?
Maybe this could be the subject for another thread.

Just kidding, S4H.

But I am not sure I am following you here. How does this apply? (And why do you spell Jesus "J-us"?) Just curious.

Jim
\o/
 
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Svt4Him

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Jim B said:
Maybe this could be the subject for another thread.

Just kidding, S4H.

But I am not sure I am following you here. How does this apply? (And why do you spell Jesus "J-us"?) Just curious.

Jim
\o/
Because I was using sarcasm. But my point is if something about Jesus wasn't said, it's best if we don't say it for Him. I have no idea what He said when He went to pray all night, nor do I have any idea what He did in the 'missing years', and if that's how God wanted it to be, then so be it.

Personally I'd love to hear one of His prayer times. I know we are given a glimps when He prayed for His followers, but that's it.
 
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pimorton

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rooster said:
I saw this question a little differently. I pray in tongues because i do not know what to pray, Christ need not because he knew what to pray.
I would say he did not speak in tongues because he had no need to.

He was intimately aware of the will of the Father and totally obedient, thus he knew what was needed to be prayed for.
He having denied sin to himself he is thus also intimately close to the father and can hear his voice clearly.

I would not see it as tongues being a "new" testament gift that was not available to him because the outpouring at pentecost had not happened. What of the other great acts that Christ was performing which we would now call "New covenant" gifts of the Spirit?
As Christ is now our advocate before the father, the Spirit is our advocate of the realness of his Lordship and salvation. Remember the Spirit came to testify within us of Christ; our belief of salvation comes from the testimony of the Word and the Spirit within us and not from conjuctual linkages we make from the historical man of Jesus and the narratives of the gospel.
Excellent, and I think correct, response.
 
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pimorton said:
Excellent, and I think correct, response.

QUOTE BY ROOSTER
He was intimately aware of the will of the Father and totally obedient, thus he knew what was needed to be prayed for.
He having denied sin to himself he is thus also intimately close to the father and can hear his voice clearly.


I feel the exact same way. The Spirit comes to our aid when we don't know what to pray for. Even though Jesus was man on earth, but without sin, I believe that he was still God in 3 persons + man. The reason I believe this, is because He was SINNLESS. Not us for sure. If He was still part of the Godhead, he wouldn't need to pray in tongues.
 
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