Soyeong
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- Mar 10, 2015
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The test for a false prophet was twofold: if the signs and wonders he announces do not take place, and if he says, "Let us follow other gods."
Paul is guilty of neither.
In Deuteronomy 13:1-5, walking after the Lord our God, fearing Him, keeping His commandments, obeying His voice, serving Him, and holding fast to him is what it looks like to resist the influence of the false prophet who has taught rebellion against the Lord our God in order to make us leave the way in which the Lord our God commanded us to walk, so it equates saying, "Let us follow other gods" with teaching against obeying the Mosaic Law, especially because the Mosaic Law is God's instructions for how to follow Him instead of following other gods. The Mosaic Law teaches us how to testify about the nature of the God of Israel, so speaking against obeying it is denying the nature of who the God of Israel is, which is essentially following a different god with a different nature.
I most definitely take Paul at his word.
To believe him or not is up to you.
Two people can agree that what Paul said is true, but disagree about how to correctly interpret what he said, which is why you can interpret him as speaking against the Mosaic Law, while can interpret him as never doing that. So instead of acting like I'm choosing not to believe what Paul said, you should try to explain why my interpretation is wrong and justify why your interpretation is correct.
So they're still offering animal sacrifices over at your church?
There is no temple.
Your error is shown in that you set the NT Scriptures against themselves, Mt 22:40 against Heb 7:12, 8:13; Eph 2:14-16; Col 2:14.
You simply don't believe the NT in Eph 2:14-16; Heb 7:12, 8:13; Eph 2:14-16; Col 2:14.
That is your choice.
The Mosaic Law is part of Scripture and spoke by God, so you are the one who is pitting those verses against God. Hebrews 7:12 is not speaking about a change of the law in regard to its content, Hebres 8:10-13 is speaking about the New Covenant following the Mosaic Law, and neither Ephesians 2:16-16 nor Colossians 2:14 are referring to God's law, so I believe those verses, I just don't think that you have interpreted them in a way that is justifiable.
Human thinking and flawed human reasoning do not govern God or his Word written.
For his thoughts are not our thoughts, neither are our ways, his ways.
As the heavens are higher than the earth, so are God's ways higher than our ways, and his thoughts than our thoughts.
Human reasoning is required to interpret the Bible and we should prefer interpretations of the Bible that make sense over those that do not. If you think that I've used flawed reasoning, then by all means please make the case for it, but it is contradictory for God's nature to be eternal while the way to testify about His nature changes over time. In Isaiah 55:7-9, those verses are spoken about the wicked.
Speaking of flawed human reasoning, you just acknowledged that the Decalogue was included in Mt 22:40 (as well as Ro 13:8-12),
now you infer that it is excluded.
I said nothing to infer that it is excluded.
Are you not assuming that Eph 2:14-16; Col 2:14; Heb 7:12, 8:13 are not about the ceremonial laws and regulations of the Mosaic code?
That is all made clear in Col 2:14; Heb 7:12, 8:13; Eph 2:14-16; e.g.,
Col 2:14 - God made you alive with Christ. . ."having cancelled the written code, with its regulations, that was against us and that stood opposed to us (condemning for sin); he took it away, nailing it to the cross."
The Bible does even refer to the subcategory of ceremonial law, so I have not assumed that they do not, but rather I have made the case for how they should be interpreted.
1.) You shall not commit murder.
2.) This person has been found guilty of murder.
The first is an example of a law that is for our own good while the second is an example of a handwritten ordinance that was against someone that was nailed to their cross in order to announce why they were being executed. In Matthew 27:37, it says that they put the charge that was against Jesus over his head, so what was nailed to people's crosses was not the laws themselves, but the charge that was against them. This serves as a perfect analogy for the list of our violations of God's law being nailed to Christ's cross and with him dying in our place to pay the penalty for our sins, but has nothing to do with ending any of God's laws, especially because they are all eternal (Psalms 119:160). In Titus 2:14, it does not say that Jesus gave himself to end any laws, but in order to redeem us from all lawlessness, so saying that there were any laws nailed to the cross undermines what he accomplished on the cross. The Greek word "dogma" means "edict, ordinance, or decree" and is never used by the Bible to refer to God's law.
How many different ways does Paul have to say it?
You are wrestling the word of God (2Pe 3:16).
I am disagreeing with your interpretation, not with the word of God, but rather the Mosaic Law is the word of God and you are the one who is wrestling with it. In 2 Peter 3:15-17, it says that Paul is difficult to understand and that that those who are ignorant and unstable have twisted his words to their own destruction and have fallen into the error of lawless men, so we can be confident that when Paul is correctly understood that he never spoke against obeying God's law.
The defilement laws regarding food and persons (Lev 11-12) necessarily separated Israel from the Gentiles who were unclean to them.
Gentile uncleanness engendered a hostility in Israel toward them.
God did not give the laws for the purpose of hostility, that was simply the result in flawed human beings.
In 1 Peter 1:16, we are told to have a holy conduct for God is holy, which is a quote from Leviticus where God was given instructions for how to do that, and in 1 Peter 2:9-10, Gentiles are included as part of God's chosen people, a holy nation, a royal priesthood, and a treasure of God's own possession, which are terms used to describe Israel (Deuteronomy 7:6), so we are also called to be set apart from the nations.
In Acts 10:28, Peter referred to a law that forbade Jews to visit or associate with Gentiles, which is not found in the Mosaic Law, and is therefore a man-made law that was the result of flawed human beings. God commanded the Israelites to love Gentiles, not to be hostile towards them, so if you agree that God did not give any laws for the purpose of creating a dividing wall of hostility, then the solution to the problem is not to end God's holy, righteous, good, and eternal laws, but to end the man-made laws that were creating that hostility.
That is not Paul's meaning of justification; i.e., by faith apart from works (Ro 3:21, 28).
Your issue is not with me, it is with Paul.
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Again, I agree with what Paul said, but disagree with how you have interpreted him. Paul is speaking about justification through faith apart from works of the law that were done for the purpose of earning our justification as though it were a wage (Romans 4:4-45), but he was not speaking about justification apart from obeying the Mosaic Law as an expression of faith because he concluded in Romans 3:31 that our faith does not abolish our need to obey it, but rather our faith upholds it. Again, Paul said in Romans 2:13 that only doers of the Mosaic Law will be justified. You are also interpreting Paul as being in disagreement with James, where I interpret them as being in agreement with each other.
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