I spoke to various people about this and they all said that Adam and eve had children before they sinned...
but
If they did have children before the first sin, that would mean that there were people in the world that would have been born sin-less (the ppl who were born prior to adam and eve sinning- thus were not born with the 'original sin')..if they were sinless they would be immortal - (cause sin made adam and eve mortal) and having no need for salvation through Jesus...
Adam and Eve having children PRIOR to the first sin, would be extremely difficult to reconcile with the whole notion of christianity. Because it would mean that there were people without sin in the garden of eden but were expelled due to the sins of others (i.e. adam and eve)...that doesnt make sense....it would only make sense if Adam and Eve both ate the fruit from the tree of good and evil and gave the fruit to all of their offspring as well...
is there an answer to this in the bible?
but
If they did have children before the first sin, that would mean that there were people in the world that would have been born sin-less (the ppl who were born prior to adam and eve sinning- thus were not born with the 'original sin')..if they were sinless they would be immortal - (cause sin made adam and eve mortal) and having no need for salvation through Jesus...
Adam and Eve having children PRIOR to the first sin, would be extremely difficult to reconcile with the whole notion of christianity. Because it would mean that there were people without sin in the garden of eden but were expelled due to the sins of others (i.e. adam and eve)...that doesnt make sense....it would only make sense if Adam and Eve both ate the fruit from the tree of good and evil and gave the fruit to all of their offspring as well...
is there an answer to this in the bible?
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