definition of Dispensationalism

Daniel Marsh

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Dispensationalism is a theological system that teaches biblical history is best understood in light of a number of successive administrations of God's dealings with mankind, which it calls "dispensations." It maintains fundamental distinctions between God's plans for national Israel and for the New Testament Church, and emphasizes prophecy of the end-times and a pre-tribulation rapture of the church prior to Christ's Second Coming.

...

The dispensations
  1. the dispensation of innocence (or freedom), (Gen. 2:8-17,25), prior to Adam's fall,
  2. of conscience, (Gen. 3:10-18; Rom. 2:11-15), Adam to Noah,
  3. of government, (Gen. 9:6; Rom. 13:1), Noah to Abraham,
  4. of patriarchal rule (or promise), (Gen. 12:1-3; 22:17-18; Gal. 3:15-19), Abraham to Moses,
  5. of the Mosaic Law, (Ex. 20:1-26; Gal. 3:19), Moses to Christ,
  6. of grace, (Rom. 5:20-21; Eph. 3:1-9), the current church age, and
  7. of a literal earthly 1,000 year Millennial Kingdom that has yet to come but soon will, (Is. 9:6-7; 11:1-9; Rev. 20:1-6).
Each one of these dispensations is said to represent a different way in which God deals with man, specifically a different testing for man. "These periods are marked off in Scripture by some change in God's method of dealing with mankind, in respect to two questions: of sin, and of man's responsibility," https://www.theopedia.com/dispensationalism
 

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How does this verse fit into Dispensationalism?


Hebrews 13:8
Jesus Christ the same yesterday, and to day, and for ever.

It fits quite well. God could not dispense salvation through the shed blood of Jesus to Noah, yet a word study of "pitch" in Gen 6:14 might reveal that the spiritual component of the pitch was an atonement.

This verse:
Rom. 3:20 Therefore by the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in his sight: for by the law is the knowledge of sin.

Had to be proved through Israel as an example for us today, yet we will see many people in eternity who were born and died under the law because they did that which was contained in it faithfully.

Dispensationalism is only a tool to better understand scripture like a timeline or word study. Jesus has a whole message for man which might not make sense when looked at in part, but He does not change.
 
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Daniel Marsh

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How does this verse fit into Dispensationalism?


Hebrews 13:8
Jesus Christ the same yesterday, and to day, and for ever.

The text is related to his Divine Nature and does not relate directly to the incarnation. Phil 2 He made the choice to come in the flesh.
 
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Daniel Marsh

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"Dispensation" in the Scripture means "female administrator of a household".

which of these texts means that?

1 Corinthians 9:17
For if I do this thing willingly, I have a reward: but if against my will, a dispensation is committed to me:

Ephesians 1:10
In the dispensation of the fulness of times, to re-establish all things in Christ, that are in heaven and on earth, in him.

Ephesians 3:2
If yet you have heard of the dispensation of the grace of God which is given me towards you:

Ephesians 3:9
And to enlighten all men, that they may see what is the dispensation of the mystery which hath been hidden from eternity in God, who created all things:

Colossians 1:25
Whereof I am made a minister according to the dispensation of God, which is given me towards you, that I may fulfill the word of God:
 
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Let's start here with the definition of this Greek word. (The church is defined in the feminine.)

Strong's Greek: 3622. οἰκονομία (oikonomia) -- stewardship, administration

Now let's look at the verses themselves.

1 Corinthians 9:17
For if I do this thing willingly, I have a reward: but if against my will, a dispensation is committed to me:

(This is the same Greek word.)

"For if I do this thing willingly, I have a reward; but if against my will, a stewardship is committed to me".

Here is the context:
13 Do ye not know that they which minister about holy things live of the things of the temple? and they which wait at the altar are partakers with the altar?

14 Even so hath the Lord ordained that they which preach the gospel should live of the gospel.

15 But I have used none of these things: neither have I written these things, that it should be so done unto me: for it were better for me to die, than that any man should make my glorying void.

16 For though I preach the gospel, I have nothing to glory of: for necessity is laid upon me; yea, woe is unto me, if I preach not the gospel!

17 For if I do this thing willingly, I have a reward: but if against my will, a dispensation (course of time?) of the gospel is committed unto me.

18 What is my reward then? Verily that, when I preach the gospel, I may make the gospel of Christ without charge, that I abuse not my power in the gospel.

19 For though I be free from all men, yet have I made myself servant unto all, that I might gain the more.

Now would this verse make sense if you attempted to connect it to a course of time in history? If the past 2000 years is the "church dispensation"; yet Paul died some time in the 1st century; does that "course of time" interpretation make any sense?

(No, but to be committed to a stewardship does.)

Ephesians 1:10
In the dispensation (course of time) of the fulness of times, to re-establish all things in Christ, that are in heaven and on earth, in him.

".... in the stewardship of the fullness of times...."

(...in the course of time of the fullness of time..." doesn't make any sense.

Ephesians 3:2
If yet you have heard of the dispensation of the grace of God which is given me towards you:

"If yet you have heard of the stewardship of the grace of God which is given me toward you"

".... if yet you have heard of (the course of time) of the grace of God which is given me toward you..."

Which rendering makes more sense?

Paul isn't "in charge of time"; he has been given responsibility to convey a truth. That responsibility is to explain things such as how the OT connected to the NT. Paul was appointed that stewardship because of his background. It was no mistake that God chose a pharisee to explain the gospel as it related to the law.

Peter didn't have that background education even though he was the "apostle to the circumcision". Why an uneducated fisherman is sent to the Jews? (Because God uses the simple to confound those who think they are wise.) Yet who is Paul sent to? (The gentiles.)

Ephesians 3:9
And to enlighten all men, that they may see what is the dispensation of the mystery which hath been hidden from eternity in God, who created all things:

"And to enlighten all men, that they may see what is the stewardship of the mystery which has been hidden from eternity in God, who created all things"

Now is "(the course of time) the mystery which has been hidden from eternity in God...." No, because the atonement was competed at one point; not through the course of history.

Colossians 1:25
Whereof I am made a minister according to the dispensation of God, which is given me towards you, that I may fulfill the word of God:

"Whereof I am made a minister according to the stewardship of God, which is given me towards you, that I may fulfill the word of God:"

Again, Paul has not been made in charge of a specific course of time. He has been given a task to delineate and define how the NT relates to the OT. Note how much of what Paul's writing is about. (It's about explaining this. It's not about looking after a period of time.)

Also, you forgot a few other verses:

Luke 16:2-4
1 Timothy 1:4

All these verses use the word "dispensation"; yet it's clear these verses are talking about the administration of something. Not a time table.
 
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Dan Perez

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which of these texts means that?

1 Corinthians 9:17
For if I do this thing willingly, I have a reward: but if against my will, a dispensation is committed to me:

Ephesians 1:10
In the dispensation of the fulness of times, to re-establish all things in Christ, that are in heaven and on earth, in him.

Ephesians 3:2
If yet you have heard of the dispensation of the grace of God which is given me towards you:

Ephesians 3:9
And to enlighten all men, that they may see what is the dispensation of the mystery which hath been hidden from eternity in God, who created all things:

Colossians 1:25
Whereof I am made a minister according to the dispensation of God, which is given me towards you, that I may fulfill the word of God:

Hi and you left OUT 1 Tim 1:4 where edifying is the Greek word DISPENSATION /OIKONOMIA

and also where DISPENSATION / OIKONOMIA is used in Luke 16:2 but translated NOT OIKOMONIA but translated by the word STEWARDSHIP , WHY ?

dan p
 
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timf

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In bible times there were no corporations that employed people. Most business was conducted as an extension of a family and a household. The steward was the key person in the administration of all the household activities. He would assign tasks to the slaves, provide tools and materials, as well as schedule various activities. The steward would be considered the dispenser of the household.

Paul refers to the work he was given by God as a dispensing. There is also a reference to a “dispensation” of the fullness of time. However, I am hesitant to use the term in areas that the bible does not. For example, one might easily see with Moses that his being used of God to give the law to the nation of Israel the function of dispensing. However, since the bible does not call it that, I am reluctant to extend the concept of dispensing to Moses.

Another point of confusion is the appropriation of the act of dispensing to describe various periods of time. I can appreciate the desire to make distinct the promises to Israel (especially with regard to the new covenant and the kingdom) from what we experience as Christians today. However, I do not see the need to demark historical periods of time as “dispensing” when the bible does not describe it as such.
 
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Guojing

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The text is related to his Divine Nature and does not relate directly to the incarnation. Phil 2 He made the choice to come in the flesh.

Like Jeremiah 29:11, this particular verse must also rank as one of those most widely used "out of context" verse.
 
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Daniel Marsh

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Let's start here with the definition of this Greek word. (The church is defined in the feminine.)

Strong's Greek: 3622. οἰκονομία (oikonomia) -- stewardship, administration

Now let's look at the verses themselves.



(This is the same Greek word.)

"For if I do this thing willingly, I have a reward; but if against my will, a stewardship is committed to me".

Here is the context:
13 Do ye not know that they which minister about holy things live of the things of the temple? and they which wait at the altar are partakers with the altar?

14 Even so hath the Lord ordained that they which preach the gospel should live of the gospel.

15 But I have used none of these things: neither have I written these things, that it should be so done unto me: for it were better for me to die, than that any man should make my glorying void.

16 For though I preach the gospel, I have nothing to glory of: for necessity is laid upon me; yea, woe is unto me, if I preach not the gospel!

17 For if I do this thing willingly, I have a reward: but if against my will, a dispensation (course of time?) of the gospel is committed unto me.

18 What is my reward then? Verily that, when I preach the gospel, I may make the gospel of Christ without charge, that I abuse not my power in the gospel.

19 For though I be free from all men, yet have I made myself servant unto all, that I might gain the more.

Now would this verse make sense if you attempted to connect it to a course of time in history? If the past 2000 years is the "church dispensation"; yet Paul died some time in the 1st century; does that "course of time" interpretation make any sense?

(No, but to be committed to a stewardship does.)



".... in the stewardship of the fullness of times...."

(...in the course of time of the fullness of time..." doesn't make any sense.



"If yet you have heard of the stewardship of the grace of God which is given me toward you"

".... if yet you have heard of (the course of time) of the grace of God which is given me toward you..."

Which rendering makes more sense?

Paul isn't "in charge of time"; he has been given responsibility to convey a truth. That responsibility is to explain things such as how the OT connected to the NT. Paul was appointed that stewardship because of his background. It was no mistake that God chose a pharisee to explain the gospel as it related to the law.

Peter didn't have that background education even though he was the "apostle to the circumcision". Why an uneducated fisherman is sent to the Jews? (Because God uses the simple to confound those who think they are wise.) Yet who is Paul sent to? (The gentiles.)



"And to enlighten all men, that they may see what is the stewardship of the mystery which has been hidden from eternity in God, who created all things"

Now is "(the course of time) the mystery which has been hidden from eternity in God...." No, because the atonement was competed at one point; not through the course of history.



"Whereof I am made a minister according to the stewardship of God, which is given me towards you, that I may fulfill the word of God:"

Again, Paul has not been made in charge of a specific course of time. He has been given a task to delineate and define how the NT relates to the OT. Note how much of what Paul's writing is about. (It's about explaining this. It's not about looking after a period of time.)

Also, you forgot a few other verses:

Luke 16:2-4
1 Timothy 1:4

All these verses use the word "dispensation"; yet it's clear these verses are talking about the administration of something. Not a time table.

Both words are referring to a period of time which is what a dispensation means.

Thanks for the insight,
Daniel
 
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Daniel Marsh

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Hi and you left OUT 1 Tim 1:4 where edifying isnthe Greek word DISPENSATION /OIKONOMIA

and also where DISPENSATION / OIKONOMIA is mused in Luke 16:2 but translated NOT OIKOMONIA but b btranslated by the word STEWARDSHIP , WHY ?

dan p

From context of both translations refers to a period of time. The difference is simply when each editions of the KJV and AKJV was written --- 1611 and 1999 about a 300 year difference in time.
 
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Daniel Marsh

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Like Jeremiah 29:11, this particular verse must also rank as one of those most widely used "out of context" verse.

I looked at that verse in context, I do not see how they could misuse it.

Do you have an example, please.

Thanks,
Daniel
 
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Both words are referring to a period of time which is what a dispensation means.

Thanks for the insight,
Daniel

Did you read what I wrote? The whole point of the post that you quoted was to demonstrate that what you are claiming it means actually is not what it means.
 
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Guojing

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I looked at that verse in context, I do not see how they could misuse it.

Do you have an example, please.

Thanks,
Daniel

Which one are you referring to, Hebrews or Jeremiah?

If its the Hebrews one, many churches who still believe in the sign gift of healing, used that passage, together with Acts 10:38, to make the argument that
  1. if Jesus healed all who were oppressed by the devil, and
  2. that he is the same yesterday, today and forever,
  3. Conclusion: we in the Body of Christ can always expect to be healed by him now.
 
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The term “dispensation” is the Greek word, oikonomia, which means “house law” or “house management.” At different times and stages in God’s Word, God dispensed to mankind a different and distinct rule of life.

God’s Word must be understood in the way God revealed His will to mankind. Therefore, it needs to be understood dispensationally. There is the broad division in Scripture between God’s two programs, Prophecy and Mystery, but then there are dispensations which must be broken down within it as well.

Within each of our homes we have a certain set of rules that we expect our children to abide by. These are the house rules, the law of the household. Our house law may be different than your house law. For example, one time one of my kids came to me and said, “My friend’s family does it this way in their home, can’t we do this?” My response was “That’s their rules. We don’t do it that way in our house.” That’s the case in the dispensations of God. They each have their own set of house rules. We shouldn’t try to live by the house law belonging to another time and dispensation.

Within each dispensation of God, God dispensed a new set of “house laws or rules” that needed to be followed, and was the responsibility of those who lived under them to carry out and obey. God has given different commands to different people at different times throughout the Scripture.

Today we are under “the dispensation of the grace of God.” This current administration is an administration of grace. The house is managed by grace. Grace dominates everything about this dispensation under which we live. Our salvation is by grace, our walk is a grace walk, we are blessed by grace, our speech is with grace, and we sing with grace in our hearts, etc. There are countless principles to be applied throughout God’s Word, but the letters of Paul provide us with our “house rules” that we are to directly live by in this dispensation of Grace.
 
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