Defining the name Jesus

[W2L]

When He inspired Matthew, Mark, Luke, John, and Paul to write the name Iēsous down.



It's pronounced "Yay-sus," which is also how some people pronounce "Jesus."

Where does yay-sus come from? What's the definition? How does yaysus become Jesus?

 

[Radagast]

Where does yay-sus come from?

I'll bite one last time:

Iēsous is the name the Holy Spirit gave us in the Bible:

• I, pronounced "Y" at the start of a word
• ē, pronounced "ay"
• s, pronounced "s"
• ou, pronounced "u"
• s, pronounced "s"

It's written "Jesus" in English. Originally the "J" was supposed to pronounced "Y."

 

[W2L]

I'm starting to feel that this thread was deliberately disruptive, but I'll bite one last time:

Iēsous is the name the Holy Spirit gave us in the Bible:

• I, pronounced "Y" at the start of a word
• ē, pronounced "ay"
• s, pronounced "s"
• ou, pronounced "u"
• s, pronounced "s"

Forgive me but ive heard many names which is confusing.

 

[Radagast]

Forgive me but ive heard many names which is confusing.

If you're confused, go with what the Bible says, not what random people on the Internet say.

 

[Dkh587]

When He inspired Matthew, Mark, Luke, John, and Paul to write the name Iēsous down.



It's pronounced "Yay-sus," which is also how some people pronounce "Jesus."

So then, why do you call him Jesus when it was written in Greek as Iesous?

We know “Jesus” is not his name because it hasn’t always existed as a name until
About 500-600 years ago.

Joshua’s name was transliterated as Iesous in Septuagint, but we still call him by his name; Joshua. Iesous is a transliteration of the name Yehoshua. They have the same name.

 

[Radagast]

So then, why do you call him Jesus when it was written in Greek as Iesous?

The way I say it, there's no difference.

We know “Jesus” is not his name because it hasn’t always existed as a name until
About 500-600 years ago.

Not true.

Joshua’s name was transliterates as Iesous in the Septuagint, but we still call him by his name; Joshua.

To avoid confusion, yes.

Iesous is a transliteration of the name Yehoshua. They have the same name.

We have absolutely no way of knowing exactly what Hebrew or Aramaic name Mary gave to Jesus. All we have is the Greek Iēsous.

If God thought the Hebrew or Aramaic name was important, He would have told us, like He did with Peter.

 

[Dkh587]

The way I say it, there's no difference.



Not true.



To avoid confusion, yes.

How did the name “Jesus” exist 600 years ago when the letter J is barely 500 years old?

 

[mindlight]

It's pronounced "Yay-sus," which is also how some people pronounce "Jesus."

Which is exactly how Germans say Jesus - Yay-soos. Does that mean we need to pray in German to be heard ;-)

When I was a missionary in Israel I was taught the difference between Yeshu which is what the Jews often call Jesus and Yeshua which is the accurate way

Sadly, for many long years among Hebrew-speaking Jewish people, Yeshua has been known as “Yeshu”, which is an acronym for a curse: “yimakh shemo ve zikhro” which means, “May his name and memory be obliterated”. So much suffering and persecution has been inflicted upon Jewish people in the name of Yeshua that his very name has become a stumbling block and offense, and now he is often considered one of the enemies of the Jewish people. This word “Yeshu” is made of three Hebrew letters – Y-Sh-U (ישו), but it is missing the last letter of his name – the “Ah” sound. This last letter is called an “Ayin” (ע), which, rather interestingly, means “eye”. It’s almost as if without the “ayin” they cannot see, but when the “ayin” is added, sight comes to the blind.

https://www.oneforisrael.org/bible-based-teaching-from-israel/jesus-vs-yeshua/

People confuse the language of Greek that the New Testament was written in with the original words which were probably not in Greek at all. I wonder what language Gabriel actually spoke to Mary in when he announced Christs name. The main spoken language of the day in Galilee was Aramaic, the language of trade and culture was Greek and the bible was understood in Hebrew. So what language would a young woman who was not educated in written Hebrew and probably spoke Greek only as a second language to her first language of Aramaic speak in?

Apparently in West Aramaic (the dialect of Aramaic that Mary may have spoken) Jesus is pronounced Yeshu. So this may mean that the Rabbis ironically chose the word Gabriel may have actually used for Jesus ,to be understandable to Mary, albeit as a way of ridiculing him.

In the Syriac variety of Aramaic, the name 'Jesus' is written ܝܫܘܥ, which is pronounced yeshu` in West Syriac pronunciation, and isho` in East Syriac pronunciation.

What is the Aramaic name of jesus

 

[Daniel9v9]

I like to think of the meaning as Jesus (God Saves) Christ (the Anointed) - That is, "God saves because He is Lord of all" or "God saves through His anointed Son". In His name, we can find His good nature and will revealed to us, the Gospel.

As for the pronunciation - both in my native tongue, Norwegian, and where I live, Japan, we pronounce the name the Greek way.

 

[Radagast]

How did the name “Jesus” exist 600 years ago when the letter J is barely 500 years old?

Because Iesus and Jesus are the same name. "J" is actually just an alternate form of "I." It's at least 1500 years old.

 

[Radagast]

I wonder what language Gabriel actually spoke to Mary in when he announced Christs name.

We have no way of telling. Maybe God didn't want us to know?

 

[Dkh587]

Because Iesus and Jesus are the same name. "J" is actually just an alternate form of "I."

So did the messenger from heaven tell his mother to name him Iesous?

 

[Radagast]

So did the messenger from heaven tell his mother to name him Iesous?

We have no way of telling exactly what the messenger from Heaven told His mother.

What we do know is what the Holy Spirit told us through the Scriptures; that Iēsous is His name.

 

[Der Alte]

Or ē as in Chloē. And sometimes other letters, as in Dorkas or Elisabet.
There's also the fact that endings change in Greek according to grammatical case. Most male names have to end in s to make this work.
Matthew 1:21: you shall call his name Jesus (Jesus = Iēsous)
Matthew 1:1: The book of the genealogy of Jesus Christ (of Jesus = Iēsou)
Matthew 14:29: So Peter got out of the boat and walked on the water and came to Jesus (to Jesus = Iēsoun).
If you're telling the Holy Spirit that He got it wrong, that's blasphemy.

I intended to write "only feminine names end with 'a.'" It was late I goofed.
I did not say all feminine names end in "a."
Dorkas means Gazelle. Maybe Greek has some kind of rule for that.
The part you are criticizing as "telling the HS he got it wrong." was from the post I quoted, not my words.

 

[Der Alte]

How did the name “Jesus” exist 600 years ago when the letter J is barely 500 years old?

This has been explained more than once in this thread. Since Yeshua had been transliterated Iesous in the NT that became the accepted pronunciation. It was not until about 2000 years later that people started objecting insisting that everybody should use the Hebrew pronunciation. Although it is evident from the NT that the Hebrew pronunciation was not taught to the early gentile converts.
I have no problem with people choosing to use the Hebrew pronunciation but I draw the line when people insist that everybody use the Hebrew pronunciation.

 

[Yeshua HaDerekh]

Jesus is the English equivalence of the Greek Iesous of the Hebrew equivalence of Yashua, which means "The LORD's Salvation/Savior." A transliteration of a transliteration of the actual name...

English Jesus from Latin Iesus...from Greek Iesous...from Hebrew Yeshua. YeHoshua...YHVH Saves.

 

[Yeshua HaDerekh]

Why was Jesus called this? Matthew 1:21 tells us: "She will bear a son, and you shall call his name Jesus, for he will save his people from their sins."

She will bear a son, and you shall call his name Yeshua, for yoshia his people from their sins

 

[Yeshua HaDerekh]

We have absolutely no way of knowing exactly what Hebrew or Aramaic name Mary gave to Jesus. All we have is the Greek Iēsous.

If God thought the Hebrew or Aramaic name was important, He would have told us, like He did with Peter.

He DID in the Hebrew Matthew

 

[Radagast]

I intended to write "only feminine names end with 'a.'"

In the nominative case I think that's true.

 

[Radagast]

He DID in the Hebrew Matthew

There was no Hebrew Matthew.

There was probably an Aramaic proto-Matthew, but it's long lost.

Hebrew versions of Matthew that exist today are translations from the Greek. In some cases, made by medieval Jewish writers with anti-Christian intent.