Deeper Understanding of Atonement

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As nonbelieving sinners, we all deserve to justly be tortured, humiliated, crucified and go to hell from God. The fact that Christ physically was tortured, humiliated, crucified and murdered and we physically are not, means at lease there is some kind of substitution.

BUT: Is Penal Substitution (PS) happening? Where God is seeing to Christ’s torture, humiliation, crucifixion and murder (punishment), instead of God punishing humans (or saved individuals).

No one seems to feel Christ became a “sinner” on the cross, yet there is no place in scripture where God punishes the innocent to allow the guilty to go free, but there is:

God does have wicked people or wicked nations punish the Israelites and there could be some innocent children among those Israelites killed. It is never suggested this punishment was intended for the innocent or any substitution took place, but is there?

We do have the killing of the innocent baby son of David and Bathsheba: Nathan replied, “The Lord has taken away your sin. You are not going to die. 14 But because by doing this you have shown utter contempt for the Lord, the son born to you will die.”

15 After Nathan had gone home, the Lord struck the child that Uriah’s wife had borne to David, and he became ill. 16 David pleaded with God for the child. He fasted and spent the nights lying in sackcloth on the ground. 17 The elders of his household stood beside him to get him up from the ground, but he refused, and he would not eat any food with them.

David’s innocent son’s illness and death should have been David’s illness and death, so is this penal substitution or is it God’s just way of indirectly further punishing/disciplining David for his sins?

If we Love Christ more than David loved the son he caused to become ill, than should we be at least as sorrowful as David?

If I am just one of billions of sinners causing Christ’s time on the cross, then I might be responsible for a few nanoseconds of His time on the cross, but do I play a greater part?

Christ prayed repeatedly His most intense prayer in the Garden which we have only one verse asking: “if there was any other way…”, but what “other way” could there be? If I personally had fulfilled my earthly objective without sinning, Christ would not have had to go to the cross for me, but could I personally have provided “another way”? If I had done it without sinning there would be another way without having Christ go to the cross, so could God have looked down the corridor of time and seen me not needing Christ to go to the cross and stopped Christ going? This puts the whole blame for Christ crucifixion on me (I did not keep from sinning) and not just being responsible for a nanosecond of time on the cross.

We have the first Christian sermon on Pentecost (Acts 2) and similar sermons in Acts that are truly Christ Crucified Sermons, yet say nothing about Christ taking our place on the cross, but say lots about our putting Christ on the cross, so are we to experience a death blow to our hearts (Acts 2:37) or have a sigh of relief because we avoid being disciplined/punished?


We can go on to read lots in the NT about us being crucified “with Christ”, so is that the painful experience we should have?

Christ, Paul, Peter, John and the Hebrew writer all describe Christ’s crucifixion as an actual ransom payment, so there is a payment involve, but to whom?

When we talk to nonbelievers, we are not trying to get them to believe some book, words, doctrine or philosophy, but we want them to accept through faith Jesus Christ and Him crucified. If that nonbeliever trust (has faith) in Christ and Him crucified a child is released and allowed to enter the kingdom where God the Father is, but if the nonbeliever refuses for lack of faith Jesus Christ and Him crucified, the child is not set free to go to the Father. That nonbeliever is a perfect example of a criminal kidnapper and fully undeserving of Jesus Christ and him Crucified, which is what Christ and others say is the ransom payment.

God is not a criminal undeserving kidnapper holding His own children and satan is not changeable or has the power to hold God’s child back from God, so the unbeliever is the only excellent fit for the kidnapper in the atonement process.

Paul in Ro. 3:25 giving the extreme contrast between the way sins where handle prior to the cross and after the cross, so if they were actually handled the same way “by the cross” there would be no contrast, only a time factor, but Paul seems to say: (forgiven) sins prior to the cross where left “unpunished” (NIV), but that also would mean the forgiven “sinner” after the cross were punished.

From Romans 3: 25 Paul tells us: God presented Christ as a sacrifice of atonement, through the shedding of his blood—to be received by faith. …

Another way of saying this would be “God offers the ransom payment (Christ Crucified and the blood that flowed from Him) to those that have the faith to receive that ransom. A lack of faith results in the refusal of the ransom payment (Christ crucified).

God is not the undeserving kidnapper nor is satan, but the unbeliever is himself is holding back the child of God from the Father, that child that is within every one of us.

Paul goes on to explain:

Ro. 3: 25 …He did this to demonstrate his righteousness, because in his forbearance he had left the sins committed beforehand unpunished

I do not like the word “unpunished” but would use “undisciplined”.

So prior to the cross repentant forgiven people (saved individuals) could not be fairly and justly disciplined for the rebellious disobedience, but after the cross if we repent (come to our senses and turn to God) we can be fairly and justly disciplined and yet survive.

God and Christ would have personally preferred Christ’s blood to remain flowing through his veins, but it is I that need to have that blood outside of Christ flowing over me and in me cleansing my heart. I need to feel that blood and know it is cleansing me.

Some might try to put the need for blood on God making Him blood thirsty, but Christ says: John 6: 54 Whoever eats my flesh and drinks my blood has eternal life, and I will raise them up at the last day.

It is not God needing that blood, but I am blood thirsty for eternal life and God/Christ have provided that blood. I personally need to physically feel Christ’s blood in the symbolic wine flow down my throat and over my heart to experience and know cleansing.

A lot is made of the word “for” being used in “Christ died for us” suggesting it must mean “instead of”, but any good word study of all the Greek words translated “for” would yield more likely interpretations of “for”. If the writers wanted to convey the idea of “instead of” they should have used the Greek word “anti” which can mean “instead of”. The Greek word translate “for” including “anti” are translated other places “because of”, so “Christ died for us” would mean “Christ died because of us” and “Christ died for our sins” would translate “Christ died because of our sins”.

There is much more I can say but this is already very long so I will stop and address your comments.
 

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As nonbelieving sinners, we all deserve to justly be tortured, humiliated, crucified and go to hell from God. The fact that Christ physically was tortured, humiliated, crucified and murdered and we physically are not, means at lease there is some kind of substitution.

BUT: Is Penal Substitution (PS) happening? Where God is seeing to Christ’s torture, humiliation, crucifixion and murder (punishment), instead of God punishing humans (or saved individuals).

No one seems to feel Christ became a “sinner” on the cross, yet there is no place in scripture where God punishes the innocent to allow the guilty to go free, but there is:

God does have wicked people or wicked nations punish the Israelites and there could be some innocent children among those Israelites killed. It is never suggested this punishment was intended for the innocent or any substitution took place, but is there?

We do have the killing of the innocent baby son of David and Bathsheba: Nathan replied, “The Lord has taken away your sin. You are not going to die. 14 But because by doing this you have shown utter contempt for the Lord, the son born to you will die.”

15 After Nathan had gone home, the Lord struck the child that Uriah’s wife had borne to David, and he became ill. 16 David pleaded with God for the child. He fasted and spent the nights lying in sackcloth on the ground. 17 The elders of his household stood beside him to get him up from the ground, but he refused, and he would not eat any food with them.

David’s innocent son’s illness and death should have been David’s illness and death, so is this penal substitution or is it God’s just way of indirectly further punishing/disciplining David for his sins?

If we Love Christ more than David loved the son he caused to become ill, than should we be at least as sorrowful as David?

If I am just one of billions of sinners causing Christ’s time on the cross, then I might be responsible for a few nanoseconds of His time on the cross, but do I play a greater part?

Christ prayed repeatedly His most intense prayer in the Garden which we have only one verse asking: “if there was any other way…”, but what “other way” could there be? If I personally had fulfilled my earthly objective without sinning, Christ would not have had to go to the cross for me, but could I personally have provided “another way”? If I had done it without sinning there would be another way without having Christ go to the cross, so could God have looked down the corridor of time and seen me not needing Christ to go to the cross and stopped Christ going? This puts the whole blame for Christ crucifixion on me (I did not keep from sinning) and not just being responsible for a nanosecond of time on the cross.

We have the first Christian sermon on Pentecost (Acts 2) and similar sermons in Acts that are truly Christ Crucified Sermons, yet say nothing about Christ taking our place on the cross, but say lots about our putting Christ on the cross, so are we to experience a death blow to our hearts (Acts 2:37) or have a sigh of relief because we avoid being disciplined/punished?


We can go on to read lots in the NT about us being crucified “with Christ”, so is that the painful experience we should have?

Christ, Paul, Peter, John and the Hebrew writer all describe Christ’s crucifixion as an actual ransom payment, so there is a payment involve, but to whom?

When we talk to nonbelievers, we are not trying to get them to believe some book, words, doctrine or philosophy, but we want them to accept through faith Jesus Christ and Him crucified. If that nonbeliever trust (has faith) in Christ and Him crucified a child is released and allowed to enter the kingdom where God the Father is, but if the nonbeliever refuses for lack of faith Jesus Christ and Him crucified, the child is not set free to go to the Father. That nonbeliever is a perfect example of a criminal kidnapper and fully undeserving of Jesus Christ and him Crucified, which is what Christ and others say is the ransom payment.

God is not a criminal undeserving kidnapper holding His own children and satan is not changeable or has the power to hold God’s child back from God, so the unbeliever is the only excellent fit for the kidnapper in the atonement process.

Paul in Ro. 3:25 giving the extreme contrast between the way sins where handle prior to the cross and after the cross, so if they were actually handled the same way “by the cross” there would be no contrast, only a time factor, but Paul seems to say: (forgiven) sins prior to the cross where left “unpunished” (NIV), but that also would mean the forgiven “sinner” after the cross were punished.

From Romans 3: 25 Paul tells us: God presented Christ as a sacrifice of atonement, through the shedding of his blood—to be received by faith. …

Another way of saying this would be “God offers the ransom payment (Christ Crucified and the blood that flowed from Him) to those that have the faith to receive that ransom. A lack of faith results in the refusal of the ransom payment (Christ crucified).

God is not the undeserving kidnapper nor is satan, but the unbeliever is himself is holding back the child of God from the Father, that child that is within every one of us.

Paul goes on to explain:

Ro. 3: 25 …He did this to demonstrate his righteousness, because in his forbearance he had left the sins committed beforehand unpunished

I do not like the word “unpunished” but would use “undisciplined”.

So prior to the cross repentant forgiven people (saved individuals) could not be fairly and justly disciplined for the rebellious disobedience, but after the cross if we repent (come to our senses and turn to God) we can be fairly and justly disciplined and yet survive.

God and Christ would have personally preferred Christ’s blood to remain flowing through his veins, but it is I that need to have that blood outside of Christ flowing over me and in me cleansing my heart. I need to feel that blood and know it is cleansing me.

Some might try to put the need for blood on God making Him blood thirsty, but Christ says: John 6: 54 Whoever eats my flesh and drinks my blood has eternal life, and I will raise them up at the last day.

It is not God needing that blood, but I am blood thirsty for eternal life and God/Christ have provided that blood. I personally need to physically feel Christ’s blood in the symbolic wine flow down my throat and over my heart to experience and know cleansing.

A lot is made of the word “for” being used in “Christ died for us” suggesting it must mean “instead of”, but any good word study of all the Greek words translated “for” would yield more likely interpretations of “for”. If the writers wanted to convey the idea of “instead of” they should have used the Greek word “anti” which can mean “instead of”. The Greek word translate “for” including “anti” are translated other places “because of”, so “Christ died for us” would mean “Christ died because of us” and “Christ died for our sins” would translate “Christ died because of our sins”.

There is much more I can say but this is already very long so I will stop and address your comments.
I've written an article about my view: The Theory of Atonement
 
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bling

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I've written an article about my view: The Theory of Atonement
Thank you and I will read what you said and comment, but to begin with:
If God forgave our sins 100% there is nothing to be paid and if Christ is paying for our sins 100% there is nothing to forgive.
Any good parent not only forgives their child 100%, but also sees to (if at all possible) the just, fair, loving disciplining of that repentant child.
 
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there is no place in scripture where God punishes the innocent to allow the guilty to go free,
Yes there is. The scapegoat went free while the other was killed. The high priest carried the blood in to the Holiest Place and on his return the other was set free.
 
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redleghunter

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Yes there is. The scapegoat went free while the other was killed. The high priest carried the blood in to the Holiest Place and on his return the other was set free.
Yes Isaiah 53 confirms this as well.

Although I will mention the sins of Israel were placed on the scape goat.
 
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Yes Isaiah 53 confirms this as well.

Although I will mention the sins of Israel were placed on the scape goat.
I was just replying to the falsehood of the statement that "there is no place in scripture where God punishes the innocent to allow the guilty to go free,"
 
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Yes Isaiah 53 confirms this as well.

Although I will mention the sins of Israel were placed on the scape goat.
\ Isaiah 53. There's a particular to the acceptance of the wave offering n the feast of tabernacles that brings the offering there up to date from the original offering of atonement bringing in the propitiation of the offering making at acceptable.
 
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redleghunter

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Could you expand on what you mean in the connection to Isaiah 53. I'm missing the connection
Isaiah 53 truly does show our sins were placed on the suffering servant and He died for our sins. Was not arguing against you just expanding.

Isaiah 53 clearly shows Christ is the fulfillment of substitution.
 
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Isaiah 53 truly does show our sins were placed on the suffering servant and He died for our sins. Was not arguing against you just expanding.

Isaiah 53 clearly shows Christ is the fulfillment of substitution.
Ya I got that now. Thanks
 
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Greg J.

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As nonbelieving sinners, we all deserve to justly be tortured, humiliated, crucified and go to hell from God. The fact that Christ physically was tortured, humiliated, crucified and murdered and we physically are not, means at lease there is some kind of substitution.

BUT: Is Penal Substitution (PS) happening? Where God is seeing to Christ’s torture, humiliation, crucifixion and murder (punishment), instead of God punishing humans (or saved individuals).

No one seems to feel Christ became a “sinner” on the cross, yet there is no place in scripture where God punishes the innocent to allow the guilty to go free, but there is:

God does have wicked people or wicked nations punish the Israelites and there could be some innocent children among those Israelites killed. It is never suggested this punishment was intended for the innocent or any substitution took place, but is there?

We do have the killing of the innocent baby son of David and Bathsheba: Nathan replied, “The Lord has taken away your sin. You are not going to die. 14 But because by doing this you have shown utter contempt for the Lord, the son born to you will die.”

15 After Nathan had gone home, the Lord struck the child that Uriah’s wife had borne to David, and he became ill. 16 David pleaded with God for the child. He fasted and spent the nights lying in sackcloth on the ground. 17 The elders of his household stood beside him to get him up from the ground, but he refused, and he would not eat any food with them.

David’s innocent son’s illness and death should have been David’s illness and death, so is this penal substitution or is it God’s just way of indirectly further punishing/disciplining David for his sins?

If we Love Christ more than David loved the son he caused to become ill, than should we be at least as sorrowful as David?

If I am just one of billions of sinners causing Christ’s time on the cross, then I might be responsible for a few nanoseconds of His time on the cross, but do I play a greater part?

Christ prayed repeatedly His most intense prayer in the Garden which we have only one verse asking: “if there was any other way…”, but what “other way” could there be? If I personally had fulfilled my earthly objective without sinning, Christ would not have had to go to the cross for me, but could I personally have provided “another way”? If I had done it without sinning there would be another way without having Christ go to the cross, so could God have looked down the corridor of time and seen me not needing Christ to go to the cross and stopped Christ going? This puts the whole blame for Christ crucifixion on me (I did not keep from sinning) and not just being responsible for a nanosecond of time on the cross.

We have the first Christian sermon on Pentecost (Acts 2) and similar sermons in Acts that are truly Christ Crucified Sermons, yet say nothing about Christ taking our place on the cross, but say lots about our putting Christ on the cross, so are we to experience a death blow to our hearts (Acts 2:37) or have a sigh of relief because we avoid being disciplined/punished?


We can go on to read lots in the NT about us being crucified “with Christ”, so is that the painful experience we should have?

Christ, Paul, Peter, John and the Hebrew writer all describe Christ’s crucifixion as an actual ransom payment, so there is a payment involve, but to whom?

When we talk to nonbelievers, we are not trying to get them to believe some book, words, doctrine or philosophy, but we want them to accept through faith Jesus Christ and Him crucified. If that nonbeliever trust (has faith) in Christ and Him crucified a child is released and allowed to enter the kingdom where God the Father is, but if the nonbeliever refuses for lack of faith Jesus Christ and Him crucified, the child is not set free to go to the Father. That nonbeliever is a perfect example of a criminal kidnapper and fully undeserving of Jesus Christ and him Crucified, which is what Christ and others say is the ransom payment.

God is not a criminal undeserving kidnapper holding His own children and satan is not changeable or has the power to hold God’s child back from God, so the unbeliever is the only excellent fit for the kidnapper in the atonement process.

Paul in Ro. 3:25 giving the extreme contrast between the way sins where handle prior to the cross and after the cross, so if they were actually handled the same way “by the cross” there would be no contrast, only a time factor, but Paul seems to say: (forgiven) sins prior to the cross where left “unpunished” (NIV), but that also would mean the forgiven “sinner” after the cross were punished.

From Romans 3: 25 Paul tells us: God presented Christ as a sacrifice of atonement, through the shedding of his blood—to be received by faith. …

Another way of saying this would be “God offers the ransom payment (Christ Crucified and the blood that flowed from Him) to those that have the faith to receive that ransom. A lack of faith results in the refusal of the ransom payment (Christ crucified).

God is not the undeserving kidnapper nor is satan, but the unbeliever is himself is holding back the child of God from the Father, that child that is within every one of us.

Paul goes on to explain:

Ro. 3: 25 …He did this to demonstrate his righteousness, because in his forbearance he had left the sins committed beforehand unpunished

I do not like the word “unpunished” but would use “undisciplined”.

So prior to the cross repentant forgiven people (saved individuals) could not be fairly and justly disciplined for the rebellious disobedience, but after the cross if we repent (come to our senses and turn to God) we can be fairly and justly disciplined and yet survive.

God and Christ would have personally preferred Christ’s blood to remain flowing through his veins, but it is I that need to have that blood outside of Christ flowing over me and in me cleansing my heart. I need to feel that blood and know it is cleansing me.

Some might try to put the need for blood on God making Him blood thirsty, but Christ says: John 6: 54 Whoever eats my flesh and drinks my blood has eternal life, and I will raise them up at the last day.

It is not God needing that blood, but I am blood thirsty for eternal life and God/Christ have provided that blood. I personally need to physically feel Christ’s blood in the symbolic wine flow down my throat and over my heart to experience and know cleansing.

A lot is made of the word “for” being used in “Christ died for us” suggesting it must mean “instead of”, but any good word study of all the Greek words translated “for” would yield more likely interpretations of “for”. If the writers wanted to convey the idea of “instead of” they should have used the Greek word “anti” which can mean “instead of”. The Greek word translate “for” including “anti” are translated other places “because of”, so “Christ died for us” would mean “Christ died because of us” and “Christ died for our sins” would translate “Christ died because of our sins”.

There is much more I can say but this is already very long so I will stop and address your comments.
Fyi, God explained some of the spiritual mechanics of what Jesus did by revealing His redeeming nature through the Law regarding kinsman-redeemers, and illustrated it in the book of Ruth. Our sin died with Jesus' body on the cross (1 Peter 2:24) and it is no more. And God gave us a rebirth in Christ by granting us to share in His resurrection. Things revealed by these kinds of passages take precedence over any word study.
 
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Fyi, God explained some of the spiritual mechanics of what Jesus did by revealing His redeeming nature through the Law regarding kinsman-redeemers, and illustrated it in the book of Ruth. Our sin died with Jesus' body on the cross (1 Peter 2:24) and it is no more. And God gave us a rebirth in Christ by granting us to share in His resurrection. Things revealed by these kinds of passages take precedence over any word study.
I agree. Basically what a Kinsman redeemer is for is to redeem the inheritance of the dead brother. Which Jesus did. Christ brought in the blood as the first fruit which was approved by God before the nation could have their sins covered for yet another year. The festival or feast was the preclude to Pentecost. So not just Atonement had the sacrifice of a lamb but the second lamb offering was at Pentecost or Feast of tents or whatever. God had to approve the offering (hence the wave offering of the first fruits that had been tied with scarlet threads to identify as the first of the crop) and propititian wasn't available before the first fruit. That takes the atonement beyond that of the shadow and brings into light the substance away from the OT to the NT. It doesn't get much more technical than that but that's the basis outline of atonement. From where I can see anyway.
 
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bling

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Yes there is. The scapegoat went free while the other was killed. The high priest carried the blood in to the Holiest Place and on his return the other was set free.
This is the first time I’ve heard the scapegoat and sacrificed goat on the day od atonement being an example of Penal Substitution, so let us look at it: Here are most of the pertaining verses:

Lev. 16: 8 He is to cast lots for the two goats—one lot for the Lord and the other for the scapegoat. 9 Aaron shall bring the goat whose lot falls to the Lord and sacrifice it for a sin offering. 10 But the goat chosen by lot as the scapegoat shall be presented alive before the Lord to be used for making atonement by sending it into the wilderness as a scapegoat.

15 He shall then slaughter the goat for the sin offering for the people and take its blood behind the curtain and do with it as he did with the bull’s blood: He shall sprinkle it on the atonement cover and in front of it.

20…he shall bring forward the live goat. 21 He is to lay both hands on the head of the live goat and confess over it all the wickedness and rebellion of the Israelites—all their sins—and put them on the goat’s head. He shall send the goat away into the wilderness in the care of someone appointed for the task. 22 The goat will carry on itself all their sins to a remote place; and the man shall release it in the wilderness.

The goats both seem innocent to me so:

Which is the sinning goat?

How is the sacrificed goat taking the guilt of a goat which cannot and did not sin as far as I know?

The scapegoat is carrying (guilt or sin) of the people away into the wilderness, but shouldn’t the goat being sacrificed be carrying the guilt or sins?

The scapegoat is not being freed from sin, but carrying the sins, so how is he free?

There is nothing said about one goat taking the place of the other goat, but both goats have a different task to fulfill, so where is the substitution?
 
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This is the first time I’ve heard the scapegoat and sacrificed goat on the day od atonement being an example of Penal Substitution, so let us look at it: Here are most of the pertaining verses:

Lev. 16: 8 He is to cast lots for the two goats—one lot for the Lord and the other for the scapegoat. 9 Aaron shall bring the goat whose lot falls to the Lord and sacrifice it for a sin offering. 10 But the goat chosen by lot as the scapegoat shall be presented alive before the Lord to be used for making atonement by sending it into the wilderness as a scapegoat.

15 He shall then slaughter the goat for the sin offering for the people and take its blood behind the curtain and do with it as he did with the bull’s blood: He shall sprinkle it on the atonement cover and in front of it.

20…he shall bring forward the live goat. 21 He is to lay both hands on the head of the live goat and confess over it all the wickedness and rebellion of the Israelites—all their sins—and put them on the goat’s head. He shall send the goat away into the wilderness in the care of someone appointed for the task. 22 The goat will carry on itself all their sins to a remote place; and the man shall release it in the wilderness.

The goats both seem innocent to me so:

Which is the sinning goat?

How is the sacrificed goat taking the guilt of a goat which cannot and did not sin as far as I know?

The scapegoat is carrying (guilt or sin) of the people away into the wilderness, but shouldn’t the goat being sacrificed be carrying the guilt or sins?

The scapegoat is not being freed from sin, but carrying the sins, so how is he free?

There is nothing said about one goat taking the place of the other goat, but both goats have a different task to fulfill, so where is the substitution?
In relation to Jesus being the penal substitution the sins were placed on the innocent. :shoulder shrug: That kinda covers the point made of the conflict doesn't it?
 
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bling

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Fyi, God explained some of the spiritual mechanics of what Jesus did by revealing His redeeming nature through the Law regarding kinsman-redeemers, and illustrated it in the book of Ruth. Our sin died with Jesus' body on the cross (1 Peter 2:24) and it is no more. And God gave us a rebirth in Christ by granting us to share in His resurrection. Things revealed by these kinds of passages take precedence over any word study.
The kinsman-redeemer scenario in both Lev. 25 and Ruth 4 have nothing to do with “paying” for sin, but deal with property and slavery. No one is even taking the place for a slave, but money is being exchanged. This all has to do with money payments and nothing about sin.


1 Peter 2:24 “He himself bore our sins” in his body on the cross, so that we might die to sins and live for righteousness; “by his wounds you have been healed.”

First off: Christ is doing this so we can do something and not so God can forgive us.

What is “baring our sins” mean since sins are not some object? What I understand this to mean is Christ took the “punishment” a sinner deserves, but do you have some other idea?

Do you feel Christ was made guilty of sin (a sinner)?

It is not, Christ when through this extremely painful death, so we are off the hook, but so we can go through the painful dying process also.

“Our dying” is tied to his taking our sins/guilt way from us.

How are we healed “by his wounds”, because it does not say God heals us or forgives us because of Christ’s suffering?

When we go through just fair loving disciplining from a Loving Parent participating with us in the disciplining it can be painful during the disciplining, but afterwards we reach a higher better relationship with the parent. Christ’s pain and torture allows us to be severely personally disciplined (being crucified with Christ), so we can come out on the other side in a better healed relationship.
 
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bling

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In relation to Jesus being the penal substitution the sins were placed on the innocent. :shoulder shrug: That kinda covers the point made of the conflict doesn't it?
So you see Jesus as being like the innocent scapegoat in this example?
The innocent scapegoat with the sins place on the goat's head is the one set free, while Christ is being tortured, humiliated and murdered, so how does that fit?
Why wasn't the scapegoat tortured and cruelly killed?
 
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bling

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Forgiveness cannot be applied until justice is satisfied. Christ died to satisfy the demands of justice so that forgiveness maybe available
Romans 3:25 tells us: …He did this to demonstrate his righteousness, because in his forbearance he had left the sins committed beforehand unpunished

In the context of Romans Paul seems to be addressing particularly here the Jewish Christians and contrast to them, who would understand the contrast, between the way sin was handled before and after the cross. Lots of sins prior to the cross were “punished”, so Paul has to be referring to sins: repented of and forgiven by God and Jesus.

In Ro.3:25 we find “He did this to demonstrate his righteousness” which would include God’s justice being demonstrated, so it is also saying: His righteousness/justice was not being demonstrated prior to the cross, so what is not seen?

God was/is always righteous and just, but prior to the cross there was no way to fairly/justly punish/discipline rebellious disobedience without killing or banishing the sinner which would leave no one left in Israel. The Israelites would not follow through on God’s fair/just righteous rules because they were all guilty, so justice was not served and really could not be served under the Old Law. With the cross there is a fair/just way to discipline/punish the people for their sins without killing them by being crucified with Christ.

You also get with this one verse the need for the cross, which is not forgiveness but punishment of the sinner.
 
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bcbsr

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Romans 3:25 tells us: …He did this to demonstrate his righteousness, because in his forbearance he had left the sins committed beforehand unpunished

In the context of Romans Paul seems to be addressing particularly here the Jewish Christians and contrast to them, who would understand the contrast, between the way sin was handled before and after the cross. Lots of sins prior to the cross were “punished”, so Paul has to be referring to sins: repented of and forgiven by God and Jesus.

In Ro.3:25 we find “He did this to demonstrate his righteousness” which would include God’s justice being demonstrated, so it is also saying: His righteousness/justice was not being demonstrated prior to the cross, so what is not seen?

God was/is always righteous and just, but prior to the cross there was no way to fairly/justly punish/discipline rebellious disobedience without killing or banishing the sinner which would leave no one left in Israel. The Israelites would not follow through on God’s fair/just righteous rules because they were all guilty, so justice was not served and really could not be served under the Old Law. With the cross there is a fair/just way to discipline/punish the people for their sins without killing them by being crucified with Christ.

You also get with this one verse the need for the cross, which is not forgiveness but punishment of the sinner.
At issue with Rom 3:25 is the difference between God's longsuffering versus forgiveness. Notice that he had previously said in Rom 2:4,5 "Do you show contempt for the riches of his kindness, tolerance and patience, not realizing that God’s kindness leads you toward repentance? But because of your stubbornness and your unrepentant heart, you are storing up wrath against yourself for the day of God’s wrath, when his righteous judgment will be revealed." You see, God's tolerance doesn't mean that people will escape his judgement. He's simply putting off his judgement to give them an opportunity to repent. This as opposed to forgiveness in which their sins and lawless deeds will be remembered no more.

Some take God's long-suffering as condoning sin. That's what Rom 3:25 is about. Rather on the cross the demands of justice were dealt with, showing God to be just. Forgiveness cannot be applied until justice is satisfied.
 
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bling

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At issue with Rom 3:25 is the difference between God's longsuffering versus forgiveness. Notice that he had previously said in Rom 2:4,5 "Do you show contempt for the riches of his kindness, tolerance and patience, not realizing that God’s kindness leads you toward repentance? But because of your stubbornness and your unrepentant heart, you are storing up wrath against yourself for the day of God’s wrath, when his righteous judgment will be revealed." You see, God's tolerance doesn't mean that people will escape his judgement. He's simply putting off his judgement to give them an opportunity to repent. This as opposed to forgiveness in which their sins and lawless deeds will be remembered no more.

Some take God's long-suffering as condoning sin. That's what Rom 3:25 is about. Rather on the cross the demands of justice were dealt with, showing God to be just. Forgiveness cannot be applied until justice is satisfied.
Ro. 3:25 does not say: Prior to the cross, God was long suffering or patient with the people and thus did not show his righteousness.

Ro. 3:25 does say: … because in his forbearance he had left the sins committed beforehand unpunished

God’s patience, kindness, tolerance and forgiveness all show His righteousness.

The issue is: God as a wonderful parent could not show His Loving, fair/just disciplining/punishment of His children prior to the cross, because they would all be killed or banished.

Ro. 2:4-5 is talking about people (most likely Jews and even Jewish Christians) judging others for being disobedient to God’s Law, Ro. 2:1 … because you who pass judgment do the same things.

God being tolerant of these sinners is to help those being judgmental to take heed to themselves.

Who are those people: take God's long-suffering as condoning sin? Those people are spelling out those “sins” in other people and not seeing it in themselves is the issue.

Can you give me scripture for this saying of yours: "Forgiveness cannot be applied until justice is satisfied."
 
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