Thank you for your thoughtful response. In my estimation, however, you used some of the weaker texts you could have used to demonstrate the time statements.
There are
over 100 of them in the New Testament. Can you point to any other Biblical teaching that is mentioned over 100 times in the NT that you likewise doubt the veracity of? or is this the only one?
I doubt absolutely none of the texts you listed in that post. It seems the vast majority of the texts you provided fall into the following two categories:
1) Use of the word Mello
2) Passages about His kingdom coming in the first century
I think we can immediately dismiss the texts about the kingdom coming in the first century since I agree that the Kingdom did indeed come and is indeed here. However, I simply believe it will be consummated at His Second Coming. Unless you want to argue that there is no way for it to appear in a fuller way in the future, it may be fruitless to contest this point.
That leaves us with the texts that use mello.
Let's first acknowledge your burden of proof. If you are going to use mello to demonstrate that age to come has already happened, then you must show that mellow either must mean "about to" or at least that it almost always means "about to". If "about to" is just one of several reasonable translations, then you must provide evidence for why I shouldn't pick one of the other translations.
According yo A Pocket Lexicon to the Greek New testament:
μέλλω, (a) c. infin. I am about to, I intend; (b) absol., in present participle, coming, future
So clearly according to the dictionary mello
can mean "about to", but it also can mean "going to" without any reference to nearness of time. There is no reason to say that it
must mean "about to".
I fact, in practice, the ESV only translates mello as "about to" or any equivalent term to imply temporal nearness about 30% of the time. So, at least according to the ESV, "about to" is the minority translation. I fact, it seems that mello should be translated "about to" only when the context demands it. And even then, "going to" is still a valid translation. Clearly, this word can mean mutliple things so it cannot be used to sustain a case for preterism.
So in my estimation, this leaves us with around 20 passages, most of which are not at all convincing for a 70 AD return. If you would like me to respond to any of them, then feel free to bring them up.
Before I move on, I would like to point out a major elephant in the room. My original question was about why "this age" should be taken as the Jewish age, and "the age to come" should be taken as the Christian age. Even if you succeeded at proving that "this age" ended in the first century, that doesn't prove that the disciples or Jesus were thinking in this "Jewish age" vs "Christian age" landscape. Yes, you have gone to other texts to show that Jesus coming (and therefore, the end of the age) occurred in the first century. However, you have not actually exegeted the texts to show what the authors meant by these terms. In fact, you have not even interacted much with the texts that are explicitly about "this age" vs the "age to come".
Consider the following passage:
Luke 20:27,33-36: Now some of the Sadducees—who deny that there is a resurrection—came up and asked him, ... in the resurrection, the woman—whose wife will she be? For the seven had her as wife.” 34 And Jesus said to them, “The sons of this age marry and are given in marriage, 35 but those who are considered worthy to attain to that age and to the resurrection from the dead neither marry nor are given in marriage, 36 for they are not even able to die any longer, because they are like the angels and are sons of God, because they are sons of the resurrection.
Importantly, the Sadducees often did not outright deny the resurrection, however, they simply allegorized the passages in the Old Testament, much like preterists. The gospel writers summarize their lack of belief in a literal resurrection as unbelief in a resurrection at all. If you don't believe that the resurrection is a literal event in which we rise from the earth, then you don't believe in a resurrection at all. Jesus leaves no room for a metaphorical interpretation.
According to Jesus, in the age to come, those who are worthy to enter do not marry, nor are given in marriage. Given that people still get married, then we cannot be in the age to come. To make any of Jesus' statements into symbolism here is to fall into the very same thing that Jesus criticized the Sadducees for in the passage.