Day of Atonement: to keep or not to...

BobRyan

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No, there is not; but not because Christians are expected to observe Yom Kippur but because there is nothing about Christians in the Tanach.

The Greek word "Christ" is used for the Hebrew term "Messiah" - and means the same thing. Therefore the Tanakh is filled with Christian doctrine.
 
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BobRyan

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No such a thing. The sabbath is the sabbath. The Jews keep it. Jesus kept it. And He kept it on what society calls "saturday."

WWJD.

Even the Romans of Christ's day refer to the Jews as keeping Saturday.
 
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BobRyan

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Dave-W

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That is true - but Christ kept Passover as we are told in the book of Acts and we do not condemn him for it.
Why would anyone condemn HIM for that?

As a male Jew "born under the Law," He would have SINNED had he not kept ALL of the feasts, and thus invalidated Himself from being our sacrifice.
 
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If Adam and Seth and Enoch and Noah and Abraham and Jacob did not observe the Day of Atonement as commanded in Leviticus 16:29-34, then Jews who are of the faith of Messiah and Abraham are not required to observe it either.

"But before faith came, we [those under the law, i.e. Jews] were kept under guard by the law, kept for the faith which would afterward be revealed. Therefore the law was our tutor to bring us to Christ, that we might be justified by faith. But after faith has come, we are no longer under a tutor."- Galatians 3:23-25
 
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St. Paul was speaking about those who were "kept under guard by the law" which would certainly include Jews (even possibly exclusively since Gentiles never were "under the law"). But regardless of who he was speaking to (which is not entirely important to my point), the fact that Adam and Seth and Enoch and Noah and Abraham and Jacob did not observe the Day of Atonement as commanded in Leviticus 16:29-34 means that the Jews who are of the faith of Messiah and Abraham are not required to observe it either.
 
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Dave-W

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he fact that Adam and Seth and Enoch and Noah and Abraham and Jacob did not observe the Day of Atonement as commanded in Leviticus 16:29-34
How could they observe something that had not been revealed yet?

Progressive Revelation.
... the Jews who are of the faith of Messiah and Abraham are not required to observe it either.
The First Jerusalem Council in Acts 15 exempted the believing Gentiles from Mosaic observance. That exemption did NOT include the Jews. Read Acts 21.20-26 where that question is revisited.

You may have your theological theories; but unless they actually line up with scripture, they are not worth all that much.
 
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Of course they (i.e. those before the time of Moses) could not have observed something they didn't know about. That's not really the point. No, the point is that they found righteousness in God's sight apart from the observance of the Mosaic law, which is explicitly shown of Abram in Genesis 15, even before the giving of circumcision, and implicitly in the case of the other patriarchs in Genesis, especially of Enoch. And if they found righteousness with God before the observance of any Mosaic commandment, then the same is true today. This is why it is not a requirement for anyone, including the Jews, to observe the law of Moses in order to be righteous before God.
 
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Dave-W

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And if they found righteousness with God before the observance of any Mosaic commandment, then the same is true today. This is why it is not a requirement for anyone, including the Jews, to observe the law of Moses in order to be righteous before God.
That righteousness comes apart from observing the Law - that was ALWAYS the case.

Romans 3:20a because by the works of the Law no flesh will be justified in His sight;

However, that does NOT mean that they are not required to observe. They observe for another reason entirely: obedience to God.
 
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