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Contradictions within the Qur'an

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SlaveOfGod

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The Quran states that Allah has no son. In other ayats, it also says that Allah does not beget, but it means it in a sense of reproduction whereas the Bible doesn't. Would you deny this?

My definition of child will depend upon the context being used when speaking about Jesus or the Bible. I say this because in the Bible Jesus is a child in human terms as it relates to the fact that He was incarnated and developed as a human naturally does, but His divinity distinguishes Him from being seen as just flesh. He is not a child of God; for He is God. Understand? Jesus has a dual nature. Neither nature mixes but are apparent to those who study the NT in context. That is what He is sometimes referred to as God-man.

From where are you getting this idea from that in the Quran, it means in the reproduction / genetical sense??!?!?!?!

Did the Christians who lived in the time of Muhammed ever say he was wrong because he claimed Jesus was genetically from God? The answer is never. Muslims know that Christians do not mean "Son of God" in the reproduction sense because this amounts to disbelief in your religion as well as all Abrahamic religions. For if it was meant in a reproduction sense then this suggests that Allah has a wife and you do not believe this.

Muhammed spoke to the Christians using their terminology and meaning of Son of God. Meaning that he was worshipped by Christians besides God and as a God (God from God). Allah confirms this in the Quran:

“And (remember) when Allaah will say (on the Day of Resurrection): 'O ‘Eesa (Jesus), son of Maryam (Mary)! Did you say unto men: Worship me and my mother as two gods besides Allaah?’ He will say: ‘Glory be to You! It was not for me to say what I had no right (to say). Had I said such a thing, You would surely have known it. You know what is in my inner‑self though I do not know what is in Yours; truly, You, only You, are the All‑Knower of all that is hidden (and unseen).

Never did I say to them aught except what You (Allaah) did command me to say: Worship Allaah, my Lord and your Lord. And I was a witness over them while I dwelt amongst them, but when You took me up, You were the Watcher over them; and You are a Witness to all things’”
[al-Maa'idah 5:116-117]

Muhammed said:

"Whoever bears witness that there is no god but Allaah alone, with no partner or associate, and that Muhammad is His slave and Messenger, and that ‘Eesa is His slave and Messenger, a word which Allaah bestowed upon Maryam and a spirit created by Him, and that Paradise is real, and Hell is real, Allaah will admit him through whichever of the eight gates of Paradise he wishes.”

Muhammed clearly states how Eesa was created. There is no evidence of reproduction / genetics / hereditary here. If we believed it to be, then there would be no difference between Christianity and the Polythesist at the time of Muhammed. And there are many other ahadeeth which speak about how Jesus was created. I will check my books for further detail.
 
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Beckyy25

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1) Have some passages in the Quran been abrogated?

No, the Quran is perfect and can never be abrogated.

2:85 Believe ye in part of the Scripture and disbelieve ye in part? And what is the reward of those who do so save ignominy in the life of the world, and ... the most grievous doom.

6:34 There is none to alter the decisions of Allah.

6:115 Perfected is the Word of thy Lord in truth and justice. There is naught that can change His words.

10:64 There is no changing the Words of Allah.

18:27 And recite that which hath been revealed unto thee of the Scripture of thy Lord.There is none who can change His words.

Yes, some verses have been abrogated.

2:106 Nothing of our revelation (even a single verse) do we abrogate or cause be forgotten, but we bring (in place) one better or the like thereof.

16:101 And when We put a revelation in place of (another) revelation, - and Allah knoweth best what He revealeth - they say: Lo! thou art but inventing. Most of them know not.

So after all the comments which were made on this issue, I understand that abrogation is valid within the Qur'an. Some verses have been abrogated by other verses which were revealed at a later time to replace the previous ones.

But why are then the first verses saying that nothing/no one can change Allah's words? It is obvious from the last two verses that Allah did change His word, e.g. some vereses are not valid anymore, because some better verses were revealed. So I think there is indeed a contradiction here.

2) Is it OK to drink alcohol?

Yes

16:67 And of the fruits of the date-palm, and grapes, whence ye derive strong drink and (also) good nourishment. Lo! therein is indeed a portent for people who have sense.

No

2:219 Strong drink and games of chance. Say: In both is great sin.

I guess this one is clear for everyone. It is a case of abrogation. The latter verse is valid, while the first one not.

3) How many angels talked to Mary?

One

19:16-19 And make mention of Mary in the Scripture, when she had withdrawn from her people to a chamber looking East, And had chosen seclusion from them. Then We sent unto her Our Spirit and it assumed for her the likeness of a perfect man. She said: Lo! I seek refuge in the Beneficent One from thee, if thou art God- fearing. He said: I am only a messenger of thy Lord, that I may bestow on thee a faultless son.

More than one

3:42 And when the angels said: O Mary! Lo! Allah hath chosen thee and made thee pure, and hath preferred thee above (all) the women of creation.

3:45 (And remember) when the angels said: O Mary! Lo! Allah giveth thee glad tidings of a word from him, whose name is the Messiah, Jesus, son of Mary, illustrious in the world and the Hereafter, and one of those brought near (unto Allah).

I'm still waiting for an answer to this one. Was it one angel or more?

4) Who leads disbelievers astray?

Allah

2:6-7 As for the Disbelievers, Whether thou warn them or thou warn them not it is all one for them; they believe not. Allah hath sealed their hearing and their hearts, and on their eyes there is a covering.

6:25 We have placed upon their hearts veils, lest they should understand, and in their ears a deafness.

17:97-98 As for him whom He sendeth astray, for them thou wilt find no protecting friends beside Him, and We shall assemble them on the Day of Resurrection on their faces, blind, dumb and deaf; their habitation will be hell; whenever it abateth, We increase the flame for them. That is their reward because they disbelieved Our revelations.

18:57 Lo! on their hearts We have placed coverings so that they understand not, and in their ears a deafness. And though thou call them to the guidance, in that case they can never be led aright.

Iblis

7:16-18 Now, because Thou [Allah] hast sent me [Iblis] astray, verily I shall lurk in ambush for them on Thy Right Path. ... He [Allah] said: Go forth from hence, degraded, banished. As for such of them as follow thee, surely I will fill hell with all of you.

15:39-40 He said: My Lord! Because Thou hast sent me astray, I verily shall adorn the path of error for them in the earth, and shall mislead them every one, Save such of them as are Thy perfectly devoted slaves.

19:83 Seest thou not that We have set the devils on the disbelievers to confound them with confusion?

I think also this one is clear. Allah gave people free will. If a person does choose to do Allah's will, then Allah will help him to increase his faith. If a person does choose not to do Allah's will, then Allah will let this person do whatever he wishes (e.g. living a sinful life).

5) Can Allah do anything?

Yes, Allah can do anything.

35:1 Praise be to Allah, the Creator of the heavens and the earth, Who appointeth the angels messengers having wings two, three and four. He multiplieth in creation what He will. Lo! Allah is Able to do all things.

No, there are some things Allah cannot do.

6:100-101 Yet they ... impute falsely, without knowledge, sons and daughters unto Him. ... The Originator of the heavens and the earth! How can He have a child?

Honestly I'm still confused about this one. What we know until now is that Allah can do anything. But the discussion regarding this issue is still going on, so we'll see...
 
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SlaveOfGod

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So after all the comments which were made on this issue, I understand that abrogation is valid within the Qur'an. Some verses have been abrogated by other verses which were revealed at a later time to replace the previous ones.

But why are then the first verses saying that nothing/no one can change Allah's words? It is obvious from the last two verses that Allah did change His word, e.g. some vereses are not valid anymore, because some better verses were revealed. So I think there is indeed a contradiction here.



I guess this one is clear for everyone. It is a case of abrogation. The latter verse is valid, while the first one not.



I'm still waiting for an answer to this one. Was it one angel or more?



I think also this one is clear. Allah gave people free will. If a person does choose to do Allah's will, then Allah will help him to increase his faith. If a person does choose not to do Allah's will, then Allah will let this person do whatever he wishes (e.g. living a sinful life).



Honestly I'm still confused about this one. What we know until now is that Allah can do anything. But the discussion regarding this issue is still going on, so we'll see...

Abrogation is confirmed by Allah in the Quran. Nobody can change a word of Allah's, meaning the make up of the verses, letters, distort them, alter them, or misintepret and various other aspects.

Also a quick point about the verses where you say that Allah's words cannot change:

10:64 does not read - There is no changing the Words of Allah. This is only half the ayah. Again you have ignored the full verse (I know you didnt mean to given what you said before and that you have simply copy and pasted.

10:64 reads completely: "For them is good news, in the life of the present world, and in the Hereafter. No change can there be in the Words of Allah. This is indeed the supreme success"

The part which you quoted does not refer to the Words of the Quran but to the promise of Allah. Have a read of Tafsir ibn Kathir:

Tafsir.com Tafsir Ibn Kathir

6:115 - should read as follows "And the Word of your Lord has been fulfilled in truth and in justice. None can change His Words. And He is the All-Hearer, the All-Knower"

A slight omission has been made.

This part which you quoted refers to the judgement of Allah and is part of an incident between the Prophet and The People of the Book.

Tafsir.com Tafsir Ibn Kathir

18:27 is correct and see Tafsir Ibn Kathir for its meaning and explanation. It will agree with what I have mentioned at the beginning of the post:

Tafsir.com Tafsir Ibn Kathir

6:34 actually reads: "Verily, (many) Messengers were denied before you, but with patience they bore the denial, and they were hurt, till Our help reached them, and none can alter the Words of Allah. Surely, there has reached you the information about the Messengers (before you)"

There is no word which says as you quote "There is none to alter the decisions of Allah". I dont know where that website is getting their information from, maybe they just made this one up.

What I would like to say to you is that, I am not discrediting anything you have done at all because you mentioned you took it from a website which is fair enough. However a lot of those verses need to be read in context. For example Allah says in the Quran:

"So, woe unto those performers of Salah" in 4:107.

Does this mean that Allah is telling us that we shouldnt pray? Far from it this verse has to be read in conjunction with the verse prior and after in order to understand the context. And this way of thinking is also needed for the above ayahs which I have quoted.

Lets put all the narrations and Quran verses aside for a moment. The Quran has been preserved word for word in memory since the beginning of revelation. You know may or may not know that there are millions of people around the world who have memorised the Quran by heart (we call them hafiz) and that if someone was to burn all the books of the Quran we could recreate it in 1 second. The Quran was memorised by the Prophet who taught it to his Companions, Abu Bakr, Umar, Uthman, Ali and others. This was then passed on to their companions, and to their companions and so on. So much so that we can actually trace the words of the Quran word for word right back through a chain of transmission directly to the Prophet.

To summarise after this long post. The Words of Allah cannot change, but his law which he sent down for the convinence of the people did. And by abrogating this does not mean that Words have to change. And All Praise is due to Allah

Hope this makes sense and that this clarifies any misconceptions that you may have.
 
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brinny

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So after all the comments which were made on this issue, I understand that abrogation is valid within the Qur'an. Some verses have been abrogated by other verses which were revealed at a later time to replace the previous ones.

But why are then the first verses saying that nothing/no one can change Allah's words? It is obvious from the last two verses that Allah did change His word, e.g. some vereses are not valid anymore, because some better verses were revealed. So I think there is indeed a contradiction here.



I guess this one is clear for everyone. It is a case of abrogation. The latter verse is valid, while the first one not.



I'm still waiting for an answer to this one. Was it one angel or more?



I think also this one is clear. Allah gave people free will. If a person does choose to do Allah's will, then Allah will help him to increase his faith. If a person does choose not to do Allah's will, then Allah will let this person do whatever he wishes (e.g. living a sinful life).



Honestly I'm still confused about this one. What we know until now is that Allah can do anything. But the discussion regarding this issue is still going on, so we'll see...

excellent questions Becky. This should be very enlightening as this thread unfolds.
 
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SiderealExalt

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<br />
<br />

It is somewhat pompous in the sense that you are not immune from the same charges from those who don't believe as you do. The same sort of criticism can be levied against your beliefs. Those who don't believe as you do can find alleged contradictions in your beliefs too. Upon close examination, we may be able to find more fault in your beliefs as an individual believer in something than a collective one as organized religion is. Can you see that?

Problem A. Never claimed to be. Of course since I have no holy book it makes a direct comparison on your part difficult at best. For that matter, since I don't believe in the supernatural at all. The weight of plausible skepticism falls squarely on the shoulders of theism. But your becoming tangential.

There's a reason why there are Christians for example that are not, as I stated, believers in biblical inerrancy.
 
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Beckyy25

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Do Muslims here believe in predestination? Does Allah choose ahead of time who he will put on a right path towards paradise, and who he will put on a path towards hell by sealing their hearts and senses?

Or do humans have control over their actions, and have their personal actions determine their fate?

-Lyn

SlaveOfGod confirmed in a previous post for me that when a Muslim is saying that Allah guides whom He wills and leads astray whom He will, that the following is meant:

Allah gave people free will. If a person does choose to do Allah's will, then Allah will help him to increase his faith. If a person does choose not to do Allah's will, then Allah will let this person do whatever he wishes (e.g. living a sinful life).
 
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Beckyy25

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To summarise after this long post. The Words of Allah cannot change, but his law which he sent down for the convinence of the people did. And by abrogating this does not mean that Words have to change. And All Praise is due to Allah

Hope this makes sense and that this clarifies any misconceptions that you may have.

OK, now I understand better what is meant here.
 
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Beckyy25

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Salam Becky and Peaceful Soul :).

Hello :wave:

God is uncreated. Having son/daughter/wife means God can be created. Created here also to distinguish with other polytheistic religions (Hinduism with their forms of Gods, North Gods, etc).

Honestly it's not clear for me why God (assuming that He had a son/daughter/wife) would be created? If He had a son for example, would that change His nature? IMO no. He would be the same.
 
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peaceful soul

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originally posted by SiderealExalt

Problem A. Never claimed to be. Of course since I have no holy book it makes a direct comparison on your part difficult at best. For that matter, since I don't believe in the supernatural at all. The weight of plausible skepticism falls squarely on the shoulders of theism. But your becoming tangential.

You are correct in saying that you didn't claim to be, but your response suggested it from my POV. I realize that communication through text is not always easy to decipher, but that is what I saw. I see similar claims made often. Non religions people don't get a discount when it comes to their belief system being equally evaluated and found undesirable or problematic.

Why only organized religions or theism? You hold beliefs and values. They are equally open to the same analysis. Just because you are not part of an organized religion or movement, you are not exempt from the same critique. You still hold beliefs and live by them; so, you are equally open to the same critique. You are not excluded because you do not have or belong to a religion. That was my point. I didn't want you to feel at liberty to think that you have no one to evaluate or criticize your POV and claim the same results as you are giving to us.

There's a reason why there are Christians for example that are not, as I stated, believers in biblical inerrancy.
OK. I just wanted to make sure that you see that you are not free from the same analysis. That was it. I may be wrong in some cases, but I see that non religious people think that they are not subjected to the same evaluation as religious people are.
 
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ApplePie7

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Also the translation of the line 6:101 is:

"He is the Badi` (Originator) of the heavens and the earth. How can He have children when He has no wife He created all things and He is the All-Knower of everything"

You have only wrote half of What Allah said and I have seen this trait before that Christians only take a portion of the Quran. If you read this ayah in full you will know what Allah meant when He said how can He have children because he has no wife?

All Praise be to Allah



Perhaps the biggest hypocritical contradiction is the fact that Muslims deny that Jesus is the Son, while at the same time their Koran proclaims that Jesus is indeed the Son.

In fact, the Hypocritisizing (new word from George W.) continues as followers of islam turn their heads when the Son is described as having ex-nihilo creative powers&#8230;





&#1576;&#1583;&#1610;&#1593; &#1575;&#1604;&#1587;&#1605;&#1608;&#1578; &#1608;&#1575;&#1604;&#1571;&#1585;&#1590; &#1571;&#1606;&#1609; &#1610;&#1603;&#1608;&#1606; &#1604;&#1607; &#1608;&#1604;&#1583; &#1608;&#1604;&#1605; &#1578;&#1603;&#1606;


&#1604;&#1607; &#1589;&#1581;&#1576;&#1577; &#1608;&#1582;&#1604;&#1602; &#1603;&#1604; &#1588;&#1610;&#1569; &#1608;&#1607;&#1608; &#1576;&#1603;&#1604; &#1588;&#1610;&#1569; &#1593;&#1604;&#1610;&#1605;


BadeeAAu alssamawati waal-ardi anna yakoonu lahu waladun walam takun lahu sahibatun wakhalaqa kulla shay-in wahuwa bikulli shay-in AAaleemun

6.101 Originator (of) the heavens and the earth, that He has certainly been his Son, and certainly not to be his companion, and He created every thing that He will, and He with every thing that he will, who knows.



Same word used here&#8230;



&#1608;&#1602;&#1575;&#1604;&#1608;&#1575; &#1575;&#1578;&#1582;&#1584; &#1575;&#1604;&#1604;&#1607; &#1608;&#1604;&#1583;&#1575; &#1587;&#1576;&#1581;&#1606;&#1607; &#1576;&#1604; &#1604;&#1607; &#1605;&#1575; &#1601;&#1610; &#1575;&#1604;&#1587;&#1605;&#1608;&#1578;


&#1608;&#1575;&#1604;&#1571;&#1585;&#1590; &#1603;&#1604; &#1604;&#1607; &#1602;&#1606;&#1578;&#1608;&#1606; &#1576;&#1583;&#1610;&#1593; &#1575;&#1604;&#1587;&#1605;&#1608;&#1578; &#1608;&#1575;&#1604;&#1571;&#1585;&#1590; &#1608;&#1573;&#1584;&#1575; &#1602;&#1590;&#1609; &#1571;&#1605;&#1585;&#1575; &#1601;&#1573;&#1606;&#1605;&#1575; &#1610;&#1602;&#1608;&#1604; &#1604;&#1607; &#1603;&#1606; &#1601;&#1610;&#1603;&#1608;&#1606;


Waqaloo itakhatha Allahu waladan subhanahu bal lahu ma fee alssamawati waal-ardi kullun lahu qanitoona badeeAAu alssamawati waal-ardi wa-itha qada amran fa-innama yaqoolu lahu kun fayakoonu


And they said: " &#8220;allah&#8221; he has taken a Son, glory be to Him, much more certainly His, that which (is) in the heavens and the earth, all are certainly obedient unto Him.&#8221; Originator (of) the heavens and the earth and when commanded entirely by (the) Word, so only certainly Him, He says: "Be thou." so (it) is. (2.116 &#8211; 117)



Creation by the Word?

Creation by the Son?

Wake up followers of islam&#8230;


Rather odd for the Son to be mentioned in these two &#8220;creation-out-of nothing&#8221; ayahs if He is just a mere Son&#8230;.or, according to islam&#8230;not even a son&#8230;


Praise be to the Lord Jesus Christ, creator of heaven and earth.
 
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durian

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Honestly it's not clear for me why God (assuming that He had a son/daughter/wife) would be created? If He had a son for example, would that change His nature? IMO no. He would be the same.
Remember about there's only one God? To 'multiply' God must involve in creating another God(be it son or daughter or even wife). That's also true for the forms of God or God reincarnate. It involves in re-creating God to be another form or whatsover even though they share the same essense. Had the son exist from the beginning(means uncreated), what makes that's not considered to be 2 Gods? Because they're both the same essense?

Maybe the forms of God will not change His nature (although it somewhat hard to grasp - e.g: God in human flesh has both human nature and God's nature even though originally He's only in His own Godly nature. I see the changing/addition of nature is still there), but for God to take any form or reincarnation of God negates the uncreated attribute of God as far as Islam is concerned.

(I've not intention to offend Hinduism or any other religions here. Merely stating my belief)
 
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peaceful soul

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If that is what you say, what is your definition of a child?

And Muhammed did not mistake anything because he told us Isa was born without a father therefore negating anything about genetics and also he told us about Adam who was born without father and mother therefore negating the genetics argument.

You call Jesus son of God, what does that make Adam also son of God?

OK, SlaveOfGod, let's clear up any misunderstandings before we go any further. Christians use the terms son and child in some instances to show a spiritual relationship. I highly doubt that Muslims see this or understood that in Mohammad's time when he heard about Jesus being the Son of God or the Son. It is heard so very often from other Muslims that they are thinking of those two terms in their more natural meaning of genetics. Even some of the Muslims that have spoken here in various threads have given that impression. Now where does that idea come from? Islam. If you disagree, then respond with your explanation.
 
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peaceful soul

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originally posted by durian

Remember about there's only one God? To 'multiply' God must involve in creating another God(be it son or daughter or even wife). That's also true for the forms of God or God reincarnate.

You don't understand that God is eternal. His existence was already as it was before creation; therefore, there would be no multiplication or creation necessary. That is not even an issue from reading the Bible. It states rather clearly that this was so from the beginning. The only thing that changed is that the Son, from the beginning, took on flesh. That means that not only did the Son exist in divine essence, but is now accompanied by a form constituting flesh. This union does not take anything away from the eternal Son. You are trying to make the form become a part of the essence of the Son. The form has its own attributes and behaves according to those attributes and yet does not compromise the divine attributes of the eternal Son. How this all works out is a mystery, but is not an issue once you study scripture. We may not understand it completely, but we see it and can accept it as far as we can understand it.

It involves in re-creating God to be another form or whatsover even though they share the same essense. Had the son exist from the beginning(means uncreated), what makes that's not considered to be 2 Gods? Because they're both the same essense?<br />
<br />

Because there is one God with three personas, yet one essence: Father, Son, and Holy Spirit. They are seen as separate personas, but having the same essence: ONE God. That is the way that it was from the beginning. I can understand your problems of understanding if there was only the Father, and later on, the Son was formed; but, that is not the way it is. Instead of the Sone being formed later, He was incarnated, which means that He already existed before the incarnation. The difference not is that He can be seen from a bodily POV. God is Tri Unity/Triune/Trinity.

Maybe the forms of God will not change His nature (although it somewhat hard to grasp - e.g: God in human flesh has both human nature and God's nature even though originally He's only in His own Godly nature. I see the changing/addition of nature is still there), but for God to take any form or reincarnation of God negates the uncreated attribute of God as far as Islam is concerned.<br />
<br />

I know that it is hard to grasp, but that is the nature of God. You think that Islam makes God's comprehension much easier, but you are not correct in saying that. I think that the greatest barrier for you is that when thinking that God is one, you still have the issue of defining that oneness. There are many ways to interpret oneness. Islam's approach is to say God is one and then try to prevent anyone from contemplating on that concept by threatening Muslims with condemnation or creating some kind of theological taboo. If you start pondering of what the Islamic oneness really means, I bet that you will start to see my point. God is not meant to be simple; for, He is much more complex than we can fathom.

Understand that we are not talking about reincarnation. That is a foreign concept to Christianity. In reincarnation, the original nature of the being is lost in it's continual transformation, whereas in incarnation, the nature of the being remains and the form is used to contain physical manifestation of that being. That is about as much as I can say without starting to distort the picture.

(I've not intention to offend Hinduism or any other religions here. Merely stating my belief)
<br />
<br />[/quote]

I don't understand why you would be offending anyone. This is a open discussion about definitions and ideologies. If we can't state them up front, then we do have a problem.

I understand your Islamic POV, but incarnation does not compromise anything since God is still God. The only difference is that He has extended Himself into his creation for some specific purpose. That does not make him a created being since He already existed and doesn't loose any of His attributes. The only change is that his presence into His creation is of a form of His creation. This is true because God is outside of His creation and always will be. You are looking at the form as the essence of God instead of it being a medium or interface. The form does not define God, only God's attributes do. For example, the sinless nature of Jesus is an attribute of God whereas needing to eat, sleep, rest, etc. aren't; for they are attributes of the form. That is an example of what you are not understanding. That is why we say that Jesus, God incarnate, has a dual nature. The nature of God is not lost in the nature of humanity (the form of manifestation). They somehow remain separate but yet work together within the form. We don't understand how that is possible, but we do see and understand it from scripture.

We still expect that whatever form that He takes on will reflect the characteristics of that form. In the case of Jesus, God wanted to communicate with man in a human form. Why? Because it was probably the most direct way possible to communicate. He would then be able to relate directly to humans and teach them in a way that relays a human understanding and POV. Another reason, as has been pointed out, was to take on the sins of mankind by being an intermediary for us. Angels are indirect.

How do you deal with the situation in the Qu'ran where Moses was spoken to by Allah from a burning bush? Would you agree that the appearance via the bush is a form? If no, why not? Also, would you then discredit God in the Bible when He appeared to Moses in the bush and to Israel at Mt Sinai in a cloud.
 
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SlaveOfGod

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OK, SlaveOfGod, let's clear up any misunderstandings before we go any further. Christians use the terms son and child in some instances to show a spiritual relationship. I highly doubt that Muslims see this or understood that in Mohammad's time when he heard about Jesus being the Son of God or the Son. It is heard so very often from other Muslims that they are thinking of those two terms in their more natural meaning of genetics. Even some of the Muslims that have spoken here in various threads have given that impression. Now where does that idea come from? Islam. If you disagree, then respond with your explanation.

You are not bringing me any evidence it just your opinion and doubts.

Tell me where Muhammed inferred that Jesus was genetically from God?

I have given you my evidence how Jesus was created according to Islamic principles so it is upon you to bring your evidence from the Quran or the Sunnah telling me how Muhammed believed Jesus was genetically from God.......

I am not interested in peoples opinions, conjecture or doubt, I do not like to hear, "this is what I have seen here" or "I have heard" etc because this do not consitute hard facts.

Regards
 
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peaceful soul

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originally posted by durian

Salam Becky and Peaceful Soul :).

First of all, it's relevant to know for whom the verse (Surah 6:101) was addressed to. The verse is the reply to answer the Arab polytheists who mentioned about God having sons and daughters (look to the verse before it: Surah 6:100). They said, God has literal daughters and sons which the God sarcasmly answered, why they believe God has sons and daughters while they knew God didn't has spouse.

So they asked, God may has sons and daughters whithout having a spouse which is denied by this verse:

[Surah 21:22]
had there been in heaven or on earth any deities other than God, both [those realms] would surely have fallen into ruin! But limitless in His glory is God, enthroned in His awesome almightiness [far] above anything that men may devise by way of definition!

and made clear about God is one:

[Surah 112:1-4]
SAY: "He is the One God:
"God the Eternal, the Uncaused Cause of All That Exists.
"He begets not, and neither is He begotten;
"and there is nothing that could be compared with Him."


God is uncreated. Having son/daughter/wife means God can be created. Created here also to distinguish with other polytheistic religions (Hinduism with their forms of Gods, North Gods, etc). There's an interesting anology about forms of God. A light which beamed through a prism emitts 7 different colours. The 7 different colours is but from one source of light. But Muslims deny this because God is uncreated. 7 colours emitted from one source of light are still regarded as been created. Forms of God also is polytheistic in Muslims definition.

Concerning your light/color analogy: I can agree if we are viewing light as being created, but if the light is the source (God), then I disagree with you since the 7 colors would not be creations of the source. The medium (prism) would be used to allow us to see more detail of the source (God). The 7 colors would not be forms; instead, they would be attributes/properties of the source in a similar way that Christians see the Trinity of Father, Son, and Holy Spirit: the same source/essence, but a different colors/personas. The only difference is instead of 7 colors, we only see 3.

I accept that the context is for polytheists, but Muslims still accuse Christians of believing in Jesus as God is a created entity, which is not what we believe and is not in scripture.

In context of Surah 112:1-4, how would Mohammad have understood this verse: (John 3:16) "For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life. Would he have known the Christian context? Would he have known that begotten meant only/unique instead of an offspring or some other Pagan type of notion? Do you see the issue that I have with what you are saying?

As for Jesus(r.a), there're other verses specifically for the case of Jesus be the Son of God. For example:

[Surah 5:17]
Indeed, the truth deny they who say, "Behold, God is the Christ, son of Mary." Say: "And who could have prevailed with God in any way had it been His will to destroy the Christ, son of Mary, and his mother, and everyone who is on earth – all of them? For God's is the dominion over the heavens and the earth and all that is between them; He creates what He wills: and God has the power to will anything!"

Or more generally as in:
[Surah 21:26-28]
And [yet,] some say, "The Most Gracious has taken unto Himself a son"! Limitless is He in His glory! Nay, [those whom they regard as God's "offspring" are but His] honoured servants:
they speak not until He has spoken unto them, and [whenever they act,] they act at His behest.
He knows all that lies open before them and all that is hidden from them: hence, they cannot intercede for any but those whom He has [already] graced with His goodly acceptance, since they themselves stand in reverent awe of Him.


Or other Abrahamic's Son of God term which to diminish the term of "choosen people" or any supremacy boasted by them over any race, tribe, nation etc :

[Surah 5:18]
And [both] the Jews and the Christians say, "We are God's children, and His beloved ones." Say: "Why, then, does He cause you to suffer for your sins? Nay, you are but human beings of His creating. He forgives whom He wills, and He causes to suffer whom He wills: for God's is the dominion over the heavens and the earth and all that is between them, and with Him is all journeys' end.":

So the term Son of God is never been used even figuratively in Islam in order to bring the clear message, we're His creations and there's no distinction among us but on our faith and taqwa to the God.

Hope this help :).
I am not sure what you just proved. The term "Son of God" or "son of God" is not shown in these ayats. I thought that you were trying to show that (S/s)on of God were or at least were hinted at.
 
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durian

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originally posted by durian
You don't understand that God is eternal. His existence was already as it was before creation; therefore, there would be no multiplication or creation necessary. That is not even an issue from reading the Bible.
That's why I said earlier in my post, it's relevant to know for whom the verses was addressed to. It's for arab polytheist who said Allah had literal sons and daughter.

It states rather clearly that this was so from the beginning. The only thing that changed is that the Son, from the beginning, took on flesh. That means that not only did the Son exist in divine essence, but is now accompanied by a form constituting flesh. This union does not take anything away from the eternal Son. You are trying to make the form become a part of the essence of the Son. The form has its own attributes and behaves according to those attributes and yet does not compromise the divine attributes of the eternal Son. How this all works out is a mystery, but is not an issue once you study scripture. We may not understand it completely, but we see it and can accept it as far as we can understand it.
If you could read me clearly in my first respond to this thread, you'll see I'm talking about Hinduism with their forms of God. I was not saying Jesus was a form of God. I know about Trinity :)

Because there is one God with three personas, yet one essence: Father, Son, and Holy Spirit. They are seen as separate personas, but having the same essence: ONE God. That is the way that it was from the beginning. I can understand your problems of understanding if there was only the Father, and later on, the Son was formed; but, that is not the way it is. Instead of the Sone being formed later, He was incarnated, which means that He already existed before the incarnation. The difference not is that He can be seen from a bodily POV. God is Tri Unity/Triune/Trinity.
Of course I was not saying Jesus was later than the Father in Trinity doctrine. It's for becky's explantion about arab polythiests of their literal son and daughter.
And like I said in my second post in this thread, if the form of God exists from the beginning(like in Hinduism), I'm still depict them as many Gods even though they are the same essence.

And I'm quite clear about Trinity doctrine really is for I've a lot of Christian friends here in Malaysia. Jesus in human flesh was not a form of God like Hinduism. But I don't subscribe to Trinity doctrine either. Becky asked my understanding of uncreated nature of God and that's my respond. I'm not trying to offend any religion whatsoever. In fact, I'll refrain myself to comment on other people doctrine until they ask me what is my view on their religion. :)

I know that it is hard to grasp, but that is the nature of God. You think that Islam makes God's comprehension much easier, but you are not correct in saying that. I think that the greatest barrier for you is that when thinking that God is one, you still have the issue of defining that oneness. There are many ways to interpret oneness. .........
......
I'm sorry I've quoted only a snippet of your post. Because I was not arguing about Trinity there in my 2 posts in this thread. And I know Trinity is not about reincarnation(even though some Christians I've found used this term) because like I said, I've some insight about Trinity from my Christian friends.

I don't understand why you would be offending anyone. This is a open discussion about definitions and ideologies. If we can't state them up front, then we do have a problem.
I live in multi-racial country and I know how religion discussion can turns into disaster. In Malaysia, we're trying hard to avoid this. There're many character of people in this world and I don't know how theier acceptance of my comment on their religion. Plus this is a forum which people can represent themselves with text and I'm not good in English. I don't know whther my comment is in polite English form.

How do you deal with the situation in the Qu'ran where Moses was spoken to by Allah from a burning bush? Would you agree that the appearance via the bush is a form? If no, why not? Also, would you then discredit God in the Bible when He appeared to Moses in the bush and to Israel at Mt Sinai in a cloud.
It was a sign to Moses.

[Surah 28:39]
AND WHEN Moses had fulfilled his term, and was wandering with his family [in the desert], he perceived a fire on the slope of Mount Sinai; [and so] he said to his family: "Wait here. Behold, I perceive a fire [far away]; perhaps I may bring you from there some tiding, or [at least] a burning brand from the fire, so that you might warm yourselves."

When Moses asked God to reveal Himself:
[Surah 7:143]
And when Moses came [to Mount Sinai] at the time set by Us, and his Sustainer spoke unto him, he said: "O my Sustainer! Show [Thyself] unto me, so that I might behold Thee!" Said [God]: "Never canst thou see Me. However, behold this mountain: if it remains firm in its place, then &#8211; only then &#8211; wilt thou see Me." And as soon as his Sustainer revealed His glory to the mountain, He caused it to crumble to dust; and Moses fell down in a swoon. And when he came to himself, he said: "Limitless art Thou in Thy glory! Unto Thee do I turn in repentance; and I shall [always] be the first to believe in Thee!"
 
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durian

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originally posted by durian

Concerning your light/color analogy: I can agree if we are viewing light as being created, but if the light is the source (God), then I disagree with you since the 7 colors would not be creations of the source. The medium (prism) would be used to allow us to see more detail of the source (God). The 7 colors would not be forms; instead, they would be attributes/properties of the source in a similar way that Christians see the Trinity of Father, Son, and Holy Spirit: the same source/essence, but a different colors/personas. The only difference is instead of 7 colors, we only see 3.
From my view, that's the seperation of the source which means disambling/re-creation. I can't describe to you vividly what I'm trying to say because of the language barrier. (wish I'd not slept in my English classes :D)

I accept that the context is for polytheists, but Muslims still accuse Christians of believing in Jesus as God is a created entity, which is not what we believe and is not in scripture.

In context of Surah 112:1-4, how would Mohammad have understood this verse: (John 3:16) "For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life. Would he have known the Christian context? Would he have known that begotten meant only/unique instead of an offspring or some other Pagan type of notion? Do you see the issue that I have with what you are saying?
When Jesus was born into human flesh that means it's a literal begotten. I know Christians said, Jesus is Fully God and at the same time he's fully God. Now that's begotten here is his human nature which Islam said, God is never changed His nature. God's nature from the beginning but somewhere in history, suddenly God took human nature which I view it as changing in nature (from Fully God to fully God + fully man).
I am not sure what you just proved. The term "Son of God" or "son of God" is not shown in these ayats. I thought that you were trying to show that (S/s)on of God were or at least were hinted at.
The original of discussion is about the verse 6:101 which been understood as to respond to Christians Christ. Then I was saying, that verse is dealing with polythesits and for Jesus been God, there're many other verses for that.

Like in Surah 5:18, it says all those that had been called as Son of God but mere human being. They're not revealing anything until God's revealed to them and they are in awe of God. See the difference how Allah replied to Abrahamic's son of God and polytheist son of God.

That was my point actually. To show difference in how God answered to different set of question which is almost the same term.
 
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Beckyy25

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Becky do you need any further clarifications on any of the points that have been raised?

Regards

No I guess that's it.

For those who are interested, I want to post the link which gives the answer to point #3 - regarding the number of angels who talked to Mary: Link

Here is a quote from that page, which gives the answer to this issue:

What is meant by the angels here is Jibreel alone. It is like the verse in which Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning): “He sends down the angels with the Rooh (Revelation) of His Command to whom of His slaves He wills” [al-Nahl 16:2], meaning Jibreel. End quote.

This is nothing strange in Arabic, where the plural may be used to refer to the singular.​
 
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