Hi guys we're having an argument concerning IS 40:22. Two of the theistic evolution guys are telling me that Isaiah should have used the word Duwr or this one סְפֶרָה SFiRaH.
Would that wordסְפֶרָה SFiRaH have been available is Isaiah's time ?
Thanks in advance guys.
Would that wordסְפֶרָה SFiRaH have been available is Isaiah's time ?
Thanks in advance guys.